Question bank 11 class geography by Ruksana Begum

 

L.1- GEOGRAPHY AS A DISCIPLINE 

1. There exist variations over the surface of the earth in its physical as well as cultural environment. This  concept in Geography is suitably depicted by which of the following concepts ? 

a. Spatial distribution 

b. Areal differentiation  

c. Areal variations 

d. Differential relations 

Ans. (b) 

2. Which of the following concept is described by most of the scholars in the definition about geography  ? 

a. The Earth as the home of human being only 

b. The earth as the abode of plants and animals 

c. The earth as the abode of human beings 

d. The earth and its cultural and physical features 

Ans. ( c) 

3. Choose the name of scholars who has given the following definition about geography’ ?  “Geography is concerned with the description and explanation of the areal differentiation of the earth’s surface.” 

a. Richard Hartshorne 

b. Hettner 

c. Vidal-de-la-blache 

d. Ratzel 

Ans. (a) 

4. Geography is a discipline of synthesis which attempts --------------------------synthesis.

    a. Temporal  

b. Spatial 

c. Collective 

d. Physical 

Ans. (b) 

5. Which of the following is not matched correctly ? 

a. Political Geography - Delimitation of constituencies 

b. Historical Geography - Temporal changes of geographical phenomena 

c. Soil Geography - Cultural elements 

d. Geomorphology - Evolution of landforms 

Ans. (c) 

6. Process of Pedogenesis refers to the 

a. Formation of landforms 

b. Formation of mountains 

c. Formation of tributaries 

d. Formation of soils 

Ans. (d) 

7. All the sciences, whether natural or social, have one basic objective, of-----------------------. a. understanding the reality 

b. World as a global village 

c. Understanding the concepts of relations 

d. Understanding the earth

Ans. (a) 

8. Match the List I with List II and choose correct answer with the help of given codes. LIST I LIST II 

I. Geography i scientific study of the habitats 

II. History ii spatial characteristics and attributes III. Ecosystem iii infrastructure and services 

IV. Economic geography iv Temporal synthesis 

V. Hydrology v Realms of water 

Options 

I II III IV V 

a. v i ii iii iv 

b. i v ii iv iii 

c. ii iv i iii v 

d. I ii iii iv v 

Ans. (c ) 

9. Which of the following approach of geography is given by Alexander Von Humboldt? a. Regional approach 

b. Systematic approach 

c. Traditional approach 

d. Humanistic approach 

Ans. (b) 

10. Consider the following example carefully and identify the approach of geography reflected in it. 

“A phenomenon is studied world over as a whole,and then the identification of typologies or spatial patterns is done”. 

a. Welfare approach 

b. Regional approach 

c. Systematic approach 

d. Environmental adaptation 

Ans. ( c) 

11. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the given options I. Dualism is one of the main characteristics of geography which got introduced from the  very beginning. 

II. In the regional approach, the world is divided into regions at different hierarchical levels. III. The fertility of the soil is both naturally determined and culturally induced 

Options : 

a. Only I and II are correct

b. Only I and III are correct 

c. Only II and III are correct 

d. All are correct 

Ans. (d) 

12. Which of the following factors helped human beings to moved from the stage of necessity to   a stage of freedom ? 

a. Technology 

b. Laws of nature 

c. Literacy level 

d. Availability of resources 

Ans. (a) 

13. Which of the following forms a correct group? 

 a. Economic geography, Geomorphology, Historical geography 

 b. Regional Analysis, Regional planning, Climatology 

 c. Geomorphology, Climatology, Hydrology, Soil geography 

 d. Social geography, Regional Development, Population and settlement, Hydrology  

Ans. (c ) 

14. Earlier scholars were mainly focused on which of the following branch of geography?  a. Human geography 

 b. Physical geography 

 c. Biogeography 

 d. Economic geography 

 Ans (b) 

15. Which of the following is not a recent development in the field of geography?  a. Explorations of new areas through voyages 

 b. Transformation of manual cartography into computer cartography 

 c. Development of GIS and GPS to increase knowledge 

 d. Availability of extensive information through internet 

 Ans (a) 

16. Which of the following group of topics is included in the study of biosphere ?  a. Drainage, landforms, relief 

 b. Oceans, lakes, rivers 

 c. Food chain, ecological balance, life forms including human beings 

 d. Temperature, pressure, climatic types 

Ans. ( c) 

17. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the given options I. Accelerated pace of resourceutilisation with the help of modern technology has created   ecological imbalance in the world. 

II. A better understanding of physical environment is absolutely essential for sustainable   Development. 

III. The study of physical geography is emerging as a discipline of evaluating and managing  human resources 

  

Options : 

a. Only I and II are correct 

b. Only I and III are correct 

c. Only II and III are correct 

d. All are correct  

 Ans. (a) 

 18. Which of the following factor is essential for sustainable development? 

a. To understand the nature of human being 

b. To understand the nature of landforms 

c. better understanding of human culture and their habits 

d. a better understanding of physical environment 

Ans. (d) 

19. “Geography studies the differences of phenomena usually related in different parts of the earth’s   Surface”. 

 Which of the following scholar had given above mentioned definition about the study area of geography  ?  

a. Hettner 

b. Hartshorne 

c. Ellen C. Semple 

d. Wagener 

Ans. (a) 

20. Which of the following two factors are important for the density of forests and quality of   Grasslands ? 

a. Temperature and pressure 

b. Temperature and evaporation 

c. Pressure and humidity 

d. Temperature and precipitation

Ans (d)

L-2 THE ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF THE EARTH 

1. Which of the following is not matched correctly ? 

 SCIENTIST THEORIES 

a. Immanuel Kant - Nebular hypothesis 

b. Chamberlin & Moulton - Wandering star theory 

c. James & Jean - Convectional current theory 

d. Edwin Hubble - Big Bang Theory 

Ans. (c) 

2. Which of the following theory is also called as Expanding Universe Hypothesis ?  a. Nebular hypothesis 

b. Gaseous hypothesis 

c. Binary star theory 

d. Big Bang theory 

Ans. (d) 

3. Arrange the following stages of Big Bang in correct sequence and choose the correct answer from  the given options. 

I. Within 300,000 years from the Big Bang, temperature dropped to 4,500 K (Kelvin) and gave  rise to atomic matter. 

II. At the Big Bang the “tiny ball” exploded violently. This led to a huge expansion. III. all matter forming the universe existed in one place in the form of a “tiny ball” (singular  atom) with an unimaginably small volume, infinite temperature and infinite density. IV. The expansion has slowed down. Within first three minutes from the Big Bang event,the first  atom began to form. 

Options : 

a. III, II, IV, I 

b. I, II, III, IV 

c. I, III, IV, II 

d. II, I, IV, III 

 Ans. (a) 

4. A galaxy is a group of -----------------------------------. 

             a. Planets 

             b. Stars 

 c. Moon 

 d. Gases 

Ans. (b) 

5. A galaxy starts to form by accumulation of ----------------------- gas 

a. Helium 

b. Nitrogen 

c. Hydrogen 

d. Oxygen 

 Ans. (c) 

6. Which of the following statement is not true regarding formation of the stars ? a. The stars are localised lumps of gas within a nebula. 

b. the gas cloud starts getting condensed and the matter around the core develops into small  rounded objects.

c. The small-rounded objects by the process of cohesion develop into planetesimals d. the small number of small planetesimals got separated to form a fewer large bodies in the form of  planets 

Ans. (d) 

7. Which of the following two gases were constituent of initial atmosphere ? 

a. Helium and Oxygen 

b. Hydrogen and helium 

c. Hydrogen and nitrogen 

d. Hydrogen and oxygen 

Ans. (b) 

8. What was the nature of initial earth ? 

a. A barren, rocky and hot object with a thin atmosphere 

b. A barren, rocky and cold object with a dense atmosphere 

c. Full of green patches along with rich biodiversity 

d. It was composed of all the domains-Atmosphere, lithosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere Ans. (b) 

9. Match the items of List I with the items of List II and choose correct answer with the help of given  codes. 

LIST I (PROCESSES) LIST II (DESCRIPTION) 

I. Differentiation - i through which the gases were outpoured from  interior  

II. Degassing - ii Formation of food by green plants with the help of   sunlight 

III. Photosynthesis - iii considered the universe to be roughly the same at  any point of time 

IV. steady state - iv the earth forming material got separated into   different layers 

Options 

I II III IV 

a. iv i ii iii 

b. i iii ii iv 

c. ii iv i iii 

 d. I ii iii iv 

Ans. (a) 

10. The present composition of earth’s atmosphere is chiefly contributed by ---------------- and ------------- --. 

a. Hydrogen , nitrogen 

b. Hydrogen , helium 

c. Nitrogen , oxygen 

d. Oxygen , helium 

Ans. (c)

11. Oceans began to have the contribution of which of the following gases through the process of  photosynthesis ? 

a. Oxygen 

b. Hydrogen 

c. Nitrogen 

d. Methane 

Ans. (a) 

12. Consider the following statements regarding the formation of the oceans and choose the correct  answer from the options given below 

I. The earth’s oceans were formed within 500 million years from the formation of the earth. II. The rainwater falling onto the surface got collected in the depressions to give rise to oceans III. During the cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour were condensed in the interior solid  earth. 

Options : 

a. Only I and II are correct 

b. Only I and III are correct 

c. Only II and III are correct 

d. All are correct 

Ans. (a) 

13. Which of the following factors contributed water vapour and gases to the atmosphere? a. Continuous seismic activities 

b. Continuous rainfall 

c. Upliftment of lithosphere 

d. Continuous volcanic eruptions 

Ans. (d) 

14. Consider the following stages of evolution of atmosphere and arrange them according to their  correct sequence and choose the correct answer from the options given below i. the hot interior of the earth contributed to the evolution of the atmosphere. ii. the loss of primordial atmosphere. 

iii. the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the   process of photosynthesis. 

Options: 

a. i ii iiii 

b. ii i iii 

c. iiii ii i 

d. ii iii i 

Ans. (b

15. Assertion- It can be assumed that life began to evolve sometime 3,800 million years ago. 

 Reason- The microscopic structures closely related to the present form of blue algae   have been found in geological formations much older than some 3,000 million years. Options: 

a. Only assertion is correct 

b. Only reason is correct 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c) 

16. Life was confined to the ----------------------for a long time 

a. Oceans

b. Continents 

c. Beneath the earth 

d. Between the rocks 

Ans. (a) 

17. Pick out the correct group of layers of the earth from the surface to the interior from given options a. Mantle, crust, core 

b. Crust, core, mantle 

c. Crust, mantle, core 

d. Core, crust, mantle 

Ans. (c) 

18. In which of the following units, the distances among galaxies measured ? 

a. Kilometers 

b. Miles 

c. Faithoms 

d. Light years 

Ans. (d) 

19. Who has given the concept of Steady State ? 

a. Hoyle 

b. Arthur Holmes 

c. Carl Ritter 

d. Otto Schmidt 

Ans. (a) 

20. The diameters of individual galaxies range from--------------------light years. a. 80,000-140,000 

b. 80,000-150,000 

c. 80,000- 160,000 

d. 80,000- 145,000 

Ans. (b)

L-3 INTERIOR OF THE EARTH 

1. The earth’s radius is -------------km. 

a. 6370 

b. 6730 

c. 6307 

d. 6073 

e. Ans. (a) 

2. Consider the following statements regarding the formation of the oceans and choose the correct  answer from the options given below 

I. The configuration of the surface of the earth is largely a product of the processes operating in  the interior of the earth. 

II. Exogenic as well as endogenic processes are constantly shaping the landscape. Options : 

a. Both I and II are incorrect 

b. Both I and II are correct 

c. Only II is correct 

d. Only I is correct 

Ans. (b) 

3. The most easily available solid earth material is -------------------------------. 

a. Surface water 

b. Dust particles 

c. Avalanches 

d. surface rock 

Ans. (d) 

4. Which of the following is among the major project lead by scientist to know about the interior of the  earth ? 

a. Deep land drilling project 

b. Deep mining project 

c. Integrated Ocean Drilling Project 

d. Integrated mining project 

Ans. (c) 

5. Which of the following forms source of obtaining direct information about the earth’s interior ? a. Volcanic eruption 

b. Meteors 

c. Magnetic field 

d. Seismic activity 

Ans. (a)  

6. Which of the following is not matched correctly ? 

a. Focus - The point where the energy is released 

b. Shadow zone - Where all the waves reach 

c. Epicentre - The point on the surface nearest to the focus 

d. Tsunamis - waves generated by the tremors and not an earthquake in itself Ans. (b) 

7. Match the List I with List II and choose correct answer with the help of given codes. LIST I LIST II 

I. Richter scale i. The upper portion of the mantle

II. Asthenosphere ii. Mercailli 

III. Deccan trap iii. Magnitude scale 

IV. Intensity Scale Iv. Flood Basalt Provinces 

Options 

I II III IV 

a. iii i iv ii 

b. i iii ii iv 

c. ii iv i iii 

 d. I ii iii iv 

Ans. (a) 

8. ------------------------- are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions. a. Surface waves 

b. Body waves 

c. P waves 

d. Secondary waves 

Ans. (b) 

9. Which of the following instruments is used to record earthquake ? 

a. Barometer 

b. Seismograph 

c. Hygrometer 

d. Anemometer 

Ans. (b) 

10. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct answer from the options given below COLUMN I COLUMN II 

I. Shield volcanoes i. occur in the oceanic areas. 

II. Composite volcano ii. largest of all the volcanoes 

III. Caldera iii. eruptions with cooler and more viscous lava IV. Flood basalt province iv. highly fluid lava that flows for long distances V. Mid-Ocean Ridge Volcanoes v. most explosive of the earth’s volcanoes  Options 

I II III IV V 

a. iii i iv ii v 

b. i iii ii iv v 

c. ii iv i v iii 

d. ii iii v iv i 

Ans. (d) 

11. Which of the following statement is not true about the propagation of P-waves of earthquake? a. These waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. 

b. They exert pressure on the material in the direction of the propagation 

c. They create density differences in the material leading to stretching and squeezing of   the material. 

d. These waves are considered to be the most damaging waves. 

Ans. (d) 

12. In which of the following areas, the continental crust is thicker? 

a. Plains

b. Oceans 

c. Mountains 

d. Plateaus 

Ans. (c) 

13. The core mantle boundary is located at the depth of----------------------------------. a. 2,900 km. 

b. 2,800 km 

c. 2,700 km 

d. 2,600 km 

Ans. (a) 

14. Which of the following is not matched correctly? 

 TYPES OF EARHQUAKE CAUSE 

a. Tectonic - generated due to sliding of rocks along a fault plane b. Explosion - occur in the areas of large reservoirs 

c. Collapse - occur in the areas of mining sites 

d. Volcanic - confined to areas of active volcanoes 

Ans. (b) 

15. The Deccan Trap of India is an example of which of the following kind of volcanic  eruptions? 

a. Composite volcano 

b. Caldera 

c. Shield volcano 

d. Flood basalt provinces 

Ans. (d) 

16. In which of the following area, Dykes (intrusive volcanic landforms) are most commonly found a. Eastern Maharashtra 

b. Western Maharashtra  

c. Rajasthan 

d. Malwa plateau 

Ans.(b) 

17. Which of the following is not an indirect source of information about earth’s interior? a. Magnetic field 

b. Seismic activity 

c. Volcanic eruption 

d. Meteors 

Ans. (c) 

18. some specific areas where the waves are not reported is called the--------------------. a. Shadow zone 

b. Non-seismic area 

c. Disappearance zone 

d. Zero zone 

Ans. (a) 

19. Which of the following is the most common types of earthquake? 

a. Tectonic earthquake 

b. Collapse earthquake 

c. Explosion earthquake 

d. Reservoir induced earthquake 

Ans. (a) 

20. Which of the following forms lithosphere? 

a. Upper part of crust

b. Crust and the uppermost part of the mantle c. Upper and lower part of crust 

d. Lower crust and upper mantle 

Ans. (b)

 L-4 DISTRIBUTION OF OCEANS AND CONTINENTS 1. Match column I with column II and choose the correct answers with the help of given codes: 

Name of scientist Theory/Hypothesis 

I. Alfred Wagener - i. Plate tectonics 

II. Arthur Homes - ii. Sea floor spreading 

III. Mackenzie & Parker - iii. Continental drift theory 

IV. Hess - iv. Convectional current theory 

Options- 

 I II III IV 

a. ii i iv iii 

b. Iv ii i iii 

c. i ii iii iv 

d. iii iv i ii 

Ans. (d) 

2. Which of the following scientist was first proposed the possibility of the two Americas, Europe and  Africa, to be once joined together? 

a. Alfred Wagener 

b. Abraham Ortelius 

c. Antonio Pellegrini 

d. Arthur Holmes 

Ans. (b) 

3. What was the name of mega ocean according to Wagener? 

a. Panthalassa 

b. Pangea 

c. Gondwanaland 

d. Laurasia 

Ans. (a) 

4. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below 

Options: 

Assertion :There is the possibility of convection currents operating in the mantle portion.  Reason : These currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing thermal differences in the  mantle portion. 

a. Only assertion is correct 

b. Only reason is correct 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c) 

5. Which of the following statement is not true about the ocean configuration ? a. The ocean floor is not just a vast plain but it is full of relief. 

b. The submerged mountain ranges as well as deep trenches are found in oceans mostly located closer to the continent margins. 

c. The mid-oceanic ridges were found to be most active in terms of volcanic eruptions d. The dating of the rocks from the oceanic crust revealed the fact that they are much older than the  continental areas. 

Ans. (d)

6. Abyssal plains are found in between the------------------------------------. 

a. continental margins and mid-oceanic ridges 

b. continental margins and continental slopes 

c. Mid oceanic ridges and deep sea trenches 

d. Continental margins and deep sea trenches 

Ans. (a) 

7. Which of the following group depicts the correct order of various parts of Continental margins a. continental shelf, continental rise and deep-oceanic trenches, continental slope  b. continental shelf, continental slope, continental rise and deep-oceanic trenches c. continental slope, continental rise and deep-oceanic trenches, continental shelf d. continental rise, continental shelf, continental slope, and deep-oceanic trenches Ans. (b) 

8. Which of the following landmasses formed Indian plate? 

a. Peninsular India and New Zealand 

b. New Zealand and the Australian continental portions 

c. Peninsular India and the Australian continental portions 

d. Arabian plate and Northern India 

Ans. (c) 

9. Which of the following event took place during the movement of the Indian plate towards the  Eurasian plate ? 

a. The outpouring of lava and formation of the Deccan Traps 

b. The subcontinent was still close to the equator from 40 million years ago c. Continuous rise in the height of Himalaya  

d. Continent convergence 

Ans. (a) 

10. In which of the following areas, rate of plate movement is very high ? 

a. At the arctic ridge 

b. Beneath the Himalayan muntains 

c. At the Antarctic circle 

d. At the East- Pacific rise near Easter island. 

Ans. (d) 

11. Match column I with column II and choose the correct answers with the help of given codes: COLUMN-I COLUMN-II 

I. Spreading sites - i. Where the crust is neither produced nor   destroyed 

II. Transform boundaries - ii where sinking of a plate occurs  I. Subduction zone - iii. Where new crust is generated  II. Divergent boundaries - iv. where the plates move away  from each other 

Options- 

 I II III IV 

a. ii i iv iii 

b. iv i ii iii 

c. i ii iii iv 

d. iii iv i ii 

Ans. (b)

12. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below 

Assertion : the earth is not a perfect sphere; it has a bulge at the equator. 

Reason : This bulge is due to the rotation of the earth. 

a. Only assertion is correct 

b. Only reason is correct 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c) 

13. Which of the following period added new information to geological literature particularly about sea  floor ? 

a. The post–World War II 

b. The post–World War I 

c. The tertiary period 

d. The ancient period 

Ans. (a) 

14. Consider the following statements about the mid oceanic ridges and choose the correct answer  from the options given below 

I. It is the longest mountain-chain on the surface of the earth though submerged under the  oceanic waters.  

II. It is characterised by a central rift system at the crest 

III. The rift system at the crest is the zone of intense volcanic activity 

Options : 

a. Only I and II are correct 

b. Only I and III are correct 

c. Only II and III are correct 

d. All are correct 

Ans. (d) 

15. Which of the following plates considered among the category of minor plate ? a. African plate 

b. Cocos plate 

c. Pacific plate 

d. Eurasian plate 

Ans. (b) 

16. In which of the following plates, caribbean Islands are included ? 

a. Pacific plate 

b. North American plate 

c. South American plate 

d. Antarctica plate 

Ans. (c)  

17. It was It was realised that all along the--------------- volcanic eruptions are common.

 a. Mid-Oceanic ridges 

b. Himalayas 

c. Islands 

d. Hills of Lakshdweep Islands 

Ans. (a) 

18. Which of the following is not matched correctly ?

a. Cocos plate - Between North America and Pacific plate 

b. Nazca plate - Between South America and Pacific plate 

c. Arabian plate - Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass 

d. Philippine plate - Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate 

Ans. (a) 

19. When was the outpouring of lava and formation of the Deccan Traps took place in India? a. At the time of formation of Himalayas 

b. During the movement of the Indian plate towards the Eurasian plate. c. At the time of formation of Northern Plains 

d. During the movement of Indian plate towards Australia 

Ans. (b) 

20. Which of the following areas are included in Indian plate ? 

a. Peninsular India and New Zealand 

b. Peninsular India and South Africa 

c. Peninsular India and the Australian continental portion 

d. Peninsular India and the Sri Lanka 

Ans. (c) 

 L-5: GEOMORPHIC PROCESSES 

1. Which of the following factors have been responsible for the variations in the outer surface of   the crust ? 

a. The differences in the internal forces operating from within the earth 

b. The work and intensity of external forces 

c. Weakness of a particular place 

d. Human activities 

Ans. (a) 

2. The phenomenon of wearing down of relief variations of the surface of the earth through erosion is known as ------------------. 

a. Levelling  

b. Gradation 

c. Erosion 

d. Deposition 

Ans. (b) 

3. What stands for soil eluviation ? 

a. Downward transportation of soil components due to excess of water 

b. Upward movement of water with soil 

c. Solidification of kankars by removing extra water 

d. Erosion of soil due to excess of water 

Ans. (a) 

4. Which of the following is not matched correctly ? 

a. Desilication - Removal of silica from the soil  

b. Slump - slipping of one or several units of rock debris with a backward rotation c. Denudation - strip off or to uncover 

d. Pedology - Study of animals 

Ans. (d) 

5. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below 

Assertion : Humus accumulates in cold climates 

Reason : bacterial growth is slow 

a. Only assertion is correct 

b. Only reason is correct 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct 

 explanation for assertion 

d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the 

 correct explanation for assertion 

Ans. (c) 

6. Which of the following lines best define the word Diastrophism? 

a. The process of orogeny 

b. All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust 

c. Plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates 

d. Epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust Ans. (b) 

7. Complete the following diagram by using appropriate terminology. 

  

 

 a. Weathering , Erosion b. Erosion , Denudation 

c. Denudation , Mass movement 

d. Weathering , Mass movement 

Ans. (d) 

8. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below 

Assertion : Exfoliation domes and tors result due to unloading and thermal expansion respectively Reason : Exfoliation can occur due to expansion and contraction induced by temperature changes a. Only assertion is correct 

b. Only reason is correct 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c) 

9. Consider the following causes about mass movement and choose the correct answer from the options  given below 

I. Removal of support from below to materials above through natural or artificial means II. Increase in gradient and height of slopes 

III. Overloading through addition of materials naturally or by artificial filling 

IV. Overloading due to heavy rainfall, saturation and lubrication of slope materials V. Excessive natural seepage 

OPTION: 

a. Only I, II, and IV are true 

b. Only II, III, IV and V are true 

c. Only I, IV and V are true 

d. All are true 

 Ans. (d) 

10. Which of the following not belongs to the group of chemical weathering processes ? a. Exfoliation 

b. Carbonation 

c. Oxidation 

d. Hydration 

Ans. (a) 

11. Exfoliation belongs to which of the following groups of weathering ? 

a. Chemical weathering 

b. Biological weathering

c. Physical or mechanical weathering 

d. Both Physical and chemical weathering 

 Ans. (c) 

12. Which group of organisms is helpful in biological weathering? 

a. Termites, tiger, elephants 

b. Earthworms, termites, rodents 

c. Rodents, crocodiles, earthworms 

d. Earthworms, birds, snakes 

Ans. (b) 

13. Mass movements transfer the mass of rock debris down the slopes under the direct influence of ------. a. Erosion 

b. Gravity 

c. Weathering 

d. Diastrophism 

Ans. (b) 

14. Match column I with column II and choose the correct answers with the help of given codes: 

COLUMN-I COLUMN-II 

I. Slump - i. Removal of silica from the soil 

  

III. Debris slide - ii Sliding of individual rock masses IV. Rockslide - iii. Sliding of earth debris without backward rotation V. Desilication - iv. Slipping of one or several units of rock debris 

Options 

I II III IV 

a. iv iii ii i 

b. Iv i ii iii 

c. i ii iii iv 

d. iii iv i ii 

Ans. (a) 

15. Which of the following factor is responsible for mass movement ? 

a. Gravity 

b. Running water 

c. Waves 

d. Glaciers 

Ans. (a) 

16. ---------------involves acquisition and transportation of rock debris. 

a. Deposition 

b. Erosion 

c. Gravity 

d. Mass movement 

Ans. (b) 

17. Pedogenesis refers to which of the following processes ? 

a. Rock formation 

b. Landforms formation 

c. Mountain formation 

d. Soil formation

Ans. (d) 

18. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below 

Assertion : Mass movements are very active over weathered slopes rather than over un weathered  materials. 

Reason : No geomorphic agent like running water, glaciers, wind, waves and currents participate in the  process of mass movements. 

Options: 

a. Only assertion is correct 

b. Only reason is correct 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (d) 

19. Which of the following factors do not favour mass movements ? 

a. Thinly bedded rocks faults 

b. Vertical cliffs or steep slopes 

c. Lack of precipitation 

d. Weak unconsolidated materials 

Ans. (c) 

20. Denudational processes like erosion and transportation are controlled by ----------------------. a. Kinetic energy 

b. Terrestrial radiation 

c. Climatic conditions 

d. Earth rotation 

Ans. (a)

L-6 LANDFORMS AND THEIR EVOLUTION 

1. Which of the following is not an agent of erosion ? 

a. Running water 

b. Glaciers 

c. Solar radiation 

d. Ground water 

Ans. (c) 

2. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below 

Assertion Several related landforms together make up landscapes. 

Reason : Landforms once formed may change in their shape, size and nature slowly or fast Options: 

a. Only assertion is correct 

b. Only reason is correct 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (d) 

3. Match column I with column II and choose the correct answers with the help of given codes 

 COLUMN I (Geomorphic agents) COLUMN II (Working areas) I. Ground water i Humid region 

II. Glaciers ii Arid region 

III. Running water iii Limestone region 

IV. Wind iv High mountains covered with snow 

Options : 

I II III IV 

a. iii iv i ii 

b. i ii iii iv 

c. ii iii i iv 

d. iv i ii iii 

Ans. (a) 

4. The term ‘Linear flow’ is associated with which of the following geomorphic agents ? a. Ocean waves 

b. Running water 

c. Glaciers 

d. Ground water 

Ans. (b) 

5. ‘Waterfalls’ and ‘rapids’ are common in which of the following stages of rivers ? a. Mature 

b. Old 

c. Youth 

d. Deltaic 

Ans. (d) 

6. By considering following hint, identify the feature created by river  

“ A deep valley with very steep to straight sides” 

a. Canyon 

b. V- shaped valley

c. Gorge 

d. Potholes 

Ans. (a) 

7. Identify the following feature and choose the correct answer from the given options:

a. Gorge 

b. U-shaped valley 

c. Grand canyon 

d. V- shaped valley 

Ans. (c) 

8. Match column I with column II and choose the correct answers with the help of given codes 

COLUMN I		COLUMN II
I.	Sink holes	i
II.	Alluvial fan	ii
III.	Gorge	iii
IV.	Sand dunes	iv

Options : 

 I II III IV 

a. iii iv i ii 

b. i i iii iv 

c. ii iii i iv

d. iv i ii iii 

Ans. (d) 

9. Monadnocks and Peneplain are the terms associated with which of the following geomorphic agents ? a. Sea waves 

b. Running water 

c. Glaciers 

d. Ground water 

Ans. (b) 

10. Following are the processes of formation of a feature given, by considering these processes, identify  the feature that made. 

❖ These are the most common of landforms in glaciated mountains.  

❖ These quite often are found at the heads of glacial valleys. 

❖ The accumulated ice cuts these features while moving down the mountain tops.  ❖ They are deep, long and wide troughs or basins with very steep concave to vertically dropping high walls at its head as well as sides. 

a. Cirques 

b. Outwash plains 

c. Drumlins 

d. Moraines 

Ans. (a) 

11. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below 

Assertion Coastal processes are the most dynamic and hence most destructive. 

Reason : When waves break, the water is thrown with great force onto the shore, and simultaneously,  there is a great churning of sediments on the sea bottom. 

Options: 

a. Only assertion is correct 

b. Only reason is correct 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c) 

12. In which of the following areas, sea waves break with great force ? 

a. Along low beach 

b. Along high rocky coasts 

c. Along high beach 

d. At the smooth coast 

Ans. (b) 

13. Bars are submerged features and when bars show up above water, they are called----------------------. a. Barrier bars 

b. Lagoons 

c. Wave-cut platform 

d. Off-shore bar 

Ans. (a) 

14. Which of the following groups purely belong to the erosional landforms created by sea waves ? a. Beaches and dunes 

b. Barriers and beaches 

c. Spits and dunes 

d. Cliffs and caves 

Ans. (d) 

15. Which of the following landforms are created by winds?

a. Beaches 

b. Meanders 

c. Playas 

d. Caves and stacks 

Ans. (c) 

16. Which groups of landforms is created by glaciers? 

a. Out wash plain, Drumlins, Eskers 

b. Cliffs, terraces, caves 

c. Pediments, sand dunes, Deflation hollows 

d. Caves, sinkholes, Stalactite 

Ans. (a) 

17. ------------------- are long ridges of deposits of glacial till. 

a. Eskers 

b. Moraines 

c. Drumlins 

d. Outwash plains 

Ans. (b) 

18. Gently inclined rocky floors close to the mountains at their foot with or without a thin cover of debris,  are called -------------------------. 

a. Beaches 

b. Pediments 

c. Sea caves 

d. Platforms 

Ans. (b) 

19. Which of the following places are good for the formation of sand dunes ? 

a. Dry cold deserts 

b. Cold deserts at low heights 

c. Dry hot deserts 

d. Semi-arid regions 

Ans. (c) 

20. Which of the following is not matched correctly ? 

a. Delta - A depression found in the middle of a river

b. Meanders - Loop like channel pattern 

c. Karst topography - The action of ground water in limestone region

d. Potholes - Circular depressions

L.7 - COMPOSITION AND STRUCTURE OF ATMOSPHERE 

1. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: Atmosphere is a mixture of different gases and it envelopes the earth all round. Reason : The air is an integral part of the earth’s mass and 99 per cent of the total mass of the atmosphere  is confined to the height of 32 km from the earth’s surface. 

Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct 

b. Only Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (a) 

2. Which of the following gas is considered as greenhouse gas ? 

a. Oxygen 

b. Ozone 

c. Carbon dioxide 

d. Methane 

Ans. (c) 

3. Carbon dioxide and water vapour are found only up to-------------- from the surface of the earth. a. 90 km 

b. 100 km 

c. 95 km 

d. 105 km 

Ans. (a) 

4. Which of the following gas acts as a filter and absorbs the ultra-violet rays radiating from the sun and  prevents them from reaching the surface of the earth?  

a. Methane 

b. Ozone 

c. Oxygen 

d. Nitrogen 

Ans. (b) 

5. Consider the following statements and identify the correct layer on the basis of these statements  from the given options. 

➢ All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer 

➢ The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165m of height.  ➢ This is the most important layer for all biological activity. 

a. Mesosphere 

b. Ionosphere 

c. Stratosphere 

d. Troposphere 

Ans. (d) 

6. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion:. The proportion of gases changes in the higher layers of the atmosphere Reason : oxygen will be almost in negligible quantity at the height of 120 km. 

.Options:

a. Both assertion and reason are correct 

b. Only Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c) 

7. In the warm and wet tropics, what percent of water vapour found in the air by volume ? a. 4 percent 

b. 1 percent 

c. 6 percent 

d. 3 percent 

Ans. (a) 

8. Which of the following layers of atmosphere made radio communication possible to us ? a. Troposphere 

b. Stratosphere 

c. Ionosphere 

d. Mesosphere 

Ans. (c) 

9. Choose the correct order of atmospheric layers from the given option. 

a. Stratosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere, Mesosphere, Exosphere 

b. Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere 

c. Troposphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Exosphere, Thermosphere 

d. Troposphere, Exosphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere 

Ans. (b) 

10. Which of the following components of atmosphere act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water  vapour condenses to produce clouds ? 

a. Meteors 

b. Water vapour 

c. Gases 

d. Dust and salt particles 

Ans. (d) 

11. Tropopause is the separating zone between-----------------and-------------------------. a. Troposphere, Stratosphere 

b. Troposphere, Mesosphere 

c. Stratosphere, Mesosphere 

d. Troposphere, Exosphere 

Ans. (a) 

12. The ionosphere is located above which of the following layers ? 

a. Stratopause 

b. Mesopause 

c. Tropopause 

d. Exosphere 

Ans. (b) 

13. Which of the following elements is not related with the elements of weather and climate? a. Precipitation 

b. Humidity 

c. Atmospheric pressure 

d. Altitude 

Ans. (d)  

14. Which of the following is the highest layer of atmosphere? 

a. Stratosphere

b. Mesosphere 

c. Exosphere 

d. Ionosphere 

Ans. (c) 

15. The volume of which of the following gas in atmosphere is raising continuously? a. Oxygen 

b. Carbon dioxide 

c. Nitrogen 

d. Methane 

Ans. (b) 

16. Which of the following pairs of atmospheric layers is important for geographical studies to  Geographers ? 

a. Troposphere and Stratosphere 

b. Troposphere and Ionosphere 

c. Ionosphere and Ozonosphere 

d. Stratosphere and Ionosphere 

Ans. (a) 

17. Which of the following is not matched correctly ? 

 Atmospheric Component Characteristic 

a. Stratosphere - Ozone 

b. Dust particles - hygroscopic nuclei 

c. Ionosphere - Electrically charged particles 

d. Water vapour - Filters ultra-violet rays 

Ans. (d) 

18. Which of the following statements are true about water vapour? choose the correct answer from the  given option. 

I. Water vapour is a variable gas in the atmosphere, which decreases with altitude.  II. Water vapour decreases from the equator towards the poles.  

III. It absorbs parts of the insolation from the sun and preserves the earth’s radiated heat.  IV. Water vapour absorbs ozone gas. 

Options: 

a. Only I, II and IV are true 

b. Only I, II and III are true 

c. Only I and II are true 

d. All are true 

Ans. (b) 

19. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion:. The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions. Reason : Due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar regions 

.Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct 

b. Only Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c) 

20. On the basis of which of the following elements, atmosphere is divided into five layers

a. Precipitation 

b. Humidity 

c. Temperature

d. Air pressure

L-8 SOLAR RADIATION, HEAT BALANCE 

AND TEMPERATURE 

1. What stands for insolation ? 

a. Incoming solar radiation on earth 

b. Outgoing terrestrial radiation from the earth 

c. Absorbed amount of solar energy by clouds 

d. Absorbed amount of energy by water vapour 

Ans. (a) 

2. Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of Perihelion ? 

a. When earth is farthest to the sun 

b. When earth is nearest to the moon 

c. When earth is nearest to the sun 

d. When earth is farthest to the moon 

Ans. (c) 

3. Which of the following factors are strongly responsible for the variation in the amount and intensity  of insolation received by an area? Choose the correct answer from the options given below. I. Configuration of land 

II. The rotation of earth on its axis 

III. The angle of inclination 

IV. Cloudiness of an area 

Options: 

a. Only III and IV 

b. Only I, II and III 

c. Only II and III 

d. All are correct 

Ans. (c) 

4. Match column I with column II and choose the correct answers with the help of given codes 

 COLUMN I COLUMN II  

I. Perihelion i Reflected amount of radiation from the earth

II. Albedo of the earth ii 3rd January 

III. Aphelion iii Incoming solar radiation 

IV. Insolation iv 4th July 

Options : 

I II III IV 

a. iii iv i ii 

b. ii i iv iii 

c. ii iii i iv 

d. iv i ii iii 

Ans. (b) 

5. The long wave radiation is absorbed by the atmospheric gases particularly by ---------------------------. a. Methane 

b. Oxygen 

c. Nitrogen 

d. Carbon dioxide 

Ans. (d) 

6. Which of the following is not a way of heating of atmosphere ?

a. Condensation 

b. Convection 

c. Advection 

d. Conduction 

Ans. (a) 

7. --------------------------takes place when two bodies of unequal temperature are in contact with one another, there is a flow of energy from the warmer to cooler body. 

a. Advection 

b. Convection 

c. Conduction 

d. Evaporation 

Ans. (c) 

8. The convective transfer of energy is confined only to which of the following layers of atmosphere? a. Stratosphere 

b. Troposphere 

c. Mesosphere 

d. Ionosphere 

Ans. (b) 

9. The transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called-----------------------------. a. Advection 

b. Convection 

c. Conduction 

d. None of the above 

Ans. (a) 

10. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts 

Reason : In winter, the middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer. .Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct 

b. Only Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (d) 

11. Which of the following wind is the outcome of advection process? 

a. Monsoon 

b. Sea breeze 

c. Loo 

d. Mountain valley  

Ans. (c) 

12. Which of the following clearly explains the meaning of the ‘albedo of the earth’? a. Units of sun’s energy absorbed by the atmosphere 

b. 35 units which reflect back to space even before reaching the earth’s surface c. Units absorbed by clouds 

d. Reflected amount of heat from the earth surface 

Ans. (b) 

13. The---------------- is the measurement in degrees of how hot or cold a thing or a place is. a. Temperature 

b. Energy 

c. Pressure

d. Humidity 

Ans. (a) 

14. Which of the following is not matched correctly? 

a. Normal lapse rate - 6.5°C per 1,000 m. 

b. Isotherms - lines joining places having equal temperature. c. Inversion of temperature - Increase in temperature with increasing height d. Air drainage - Flow of wind at the mountains and hills due to gravity Ans. (c) 

15. Which of the following conditions is suitable for the inversion of temperature ? a. A long winter night with clear skies 

b. A morning having dense fog 

c. A day with stormy winds 

d. A summer night with strong wind 

Ans. (a) 

16. In which of the following area, highest range of temperature found ? 

a. In European continent 

b. In north-eastern part of Eurasian continent 

c. In South Africa 

d. In New Zealand  

Ans. (b) 

17. The earth radiates back how many units from the following in the form of terrestrial radiation ? a. 65 units 

b. 51 units 

c. 48 units 

d. 35 units 

Ans. (b) 

18. Which of the following statements are not true about the terrestrial radiation ? a. The terrestrial radiation heats up the atmosphere from below 

b. The long wave radiation or terrestrial radiation is absorbed by the atmospheric gases particularly by  greenhouse gases. 

c. The terrestrial radiation absorbed by atmosphere finally returned to the space d. Terrestrial radiation from the earth takes place in short waves forms. 

Ans. (d) 

19. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: The atmosphere is largely transparent to short wave solar radiation 

Reason : The incoming solar radiation passes through the atmosphere before striking the earth’s surface  Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct 

b. Only Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct but not related with each other. 

d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c) 

20. Which of the following factors is not responsible for the distribution of temperature over earth’s  surface? Choose the correct answer from the options given below 

I. The latitude 

II. The altitude 

III. Distance from the sea 

IV. Air-masses and ocean currents 

Options:

a. I and II 

b. II, III and IV 

c. III and IV 

d. All are responsible Ans. (d)

L-9 ATMOSPHERIC CIRCULATION 

AND WEATHER SYSTEM 

1. Which of the following statement is not true? 

a. Air expands when heated and gets compressed when cooled.  

b. Variations in the atmospheric pressure causes the movement of air from high pressure to low  pressure 

c. Air in horizontal motion is called wind 

d. The vertical rising of moist air get warms and forms cloud 

Ans. (d) 

2. Which of the following units is used to measure atmospheric pressure? 

a. Milibar 

b. Celsius 

c. Farenhite 

d. Miligrams 

Ans. (a) 

3. At sea level the average atmospheric pressure is-----------------------------. 

a. 1015.2 mb 

b. 1014.2 mb 

c. 1013.2 mb 

d. 1012.2 mb 

Ans. (c) 

4. Name the weather instrument which is used to measure atmospheric pressure. a. Thermometer 

b. Barometer 

c. Hygrometer 

d. Anemometer 

Ans. (b) 

5. Due to --------------- the air at the surface is denser and hence has higher pressure. a. Differences in temperature 

b. Sun energy 

c. Water 

d. Gravity 

Ans. (d) 

6. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: Horizontal distribution of pressure is studied by drawing isobars at constant levels. Reason : Isobars are lines connecting places having equal pressure.. 

.Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct 

b. Only Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (d) 

7. Which of the following statement is not true? 

a. Near the equator the sea level pressure is low and the area is known as equatorial low.  b. Along 30° N and 30o S are found the high-pressure areas known as the equatorial highs.  c. Further pole wards along 60o N and 60o S, the low-pressure belts are termed as the sub polar lows.  d. Near the poles the pressure is high and it is known as the polar high. 

Ans. (b) 

8. Which of the following factors affect the velocity and direction of wind? Choose the option for correct  answer 

I. Pressure gradient force 

II. Frictional force 

III. Gravity 

IV. Coriolis force 

Options: 

a. I, II and IV 

b. I, II and III 

c. II, III and IV 

d. All are true 

Ans. (a) 

9. What stands for ITCZ? 

a. Inter Temperate Controlling Zone 

b. Intra Tropical Convergence Zone 

c. Inter Tropical Controlling Zone 

d. Inter Tropical Convergence Zone 

Ans. (d) 

10. Which of the following two distinct factors characterised an air mass?  

a. Pressure and Temperature 

b. Freezing point and dew point 

c. Temperature and humidity 

d. Dew point and temperature 

Ans. (c) 

11. Which of the following factors affect the pattern of planetary winds? Choose the correct answers from  the following options. 

(i) Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating 

(ii) Emergence of pressure belts 

(iii) The migration of belts following apparent path of the sun 

(iv) The distribution of continents and oceans 

(v) The rotation of earth 

Options: 

a. (i), (ii) and (v) 

b. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 

c. (ii), (iii) and (v) 

d. All are correct 

Ans. (d) 

12. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly? 

a. Geostrophic wind - Isobars are not straight controlled by high friction b. Cyclonic circulation - The wind circulation around a low pressure area c. Anti cyclonic circulation - The wind circulation around a high pressure area d. Ferrel cell - Westerlies winds at the surface 

Ans. A. 

The homogenous surfaces, over which air masses form, are called the ----------------------------. a. Wind region 

b. Source region 

c. Planetary area 

d. None of the above 

Ans. (b)

13. Which of the following lines clearly defines front ? 

a. When the air remains over a homogenous area for a sufficiently longer time. b. The cool air of the high plateaus and ice fields. 

c. The pattern of wind circulation is modified in different seasons due to the shifting of regions of  maximum heating. 

d. It is the boundary zone between two different air masses when they meet with each other. Ans. (d) 

14. Match column I with column II and choose the correct answers with the help of given codes 

 COLUMN I (Tropical Cyclones) COLUMN II (Areas) I. Cyclones i South China Sea 

II. Hurricanes ii Indian Ocean 

III. Willy-willies iii Atlantic Ocean 

IV. Typhoons iv Western Australia 

Options : 

 I II III IV 

a. iii iv i ii 

b. ii i iv iii 

c. ii iii iv i 

d. iv i ii iii 

Ans. (c) 

15. What do you mean by the ‘landfall’ of the cyclone ? 

a. The place where a tropical cyclone crosses the coast 

b. The cyclonic systems developing in the mid and high latitude 

c. A mature tropical cyclone characterised by the strong spirally circulating wind around the centre d. A well-grown cumulonimbus cloud that produced thunder and lightening 

Ans. (a) 

16. The tornado over the sea is called---------------------------. 

a. Thunderstorm 

b. Water spouts 

c. Cold front 

d. Occluded front 

Ans. (b) 

17. In which of the following regions, fronts mainly occur ? 

a. Equatorial region 

b. Subtropical region 

c. Polar region 

d. Mid latitudinal region 

Ans. (d) 

18. Which of the following is not a type of front? 

a. Water spouts 

b. Stationary 

c. Occluded 

d. Warm front 

Ans. (a) 

19. Identify the type of front by considering following hint; 

‘An airmass which is fully lifted above the land surface’ 

a. Cold front

b. Warm front 

c. Occluded front 

d. Stationary front 

Ans. (c) 

20. What does a region of calm with subsiding air in tropical cyclone called?  a. Centre 

b. Eye 

c. Water spouts 

d. Subsidence 

Ans. (b)

L-10 WATER IN THE ATMOSPHERE 

1. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct answers with the help of given codes 

 COLUMN I COLUMN II  

I. Dew Point i The actual amount of water vapour present in  atmosphere 

II. Sublimation ii Transformation of water vapour into water III. Condensation iii Transformation of water vapour directly into solid form IV. Absolute humidity iv The temperature at which air saturated 

Options : 

 I II III IV 

a. iii iv i ii 

b. ii i iv iii 

c. ii iii i iv 

d. iv iii ii i 

Ans. (d) 

2. Which of the following facts are true about condensation? Choose the correct answer from the  given options. 

I. Condensation is caused by the loss of heat.  

II. In free air, condensation results from cooling around very small particles termed as hygroscopic  condensation nuclei. 

III. Condensation takes place when the moist air comes in contact with some colder object. IV. Condensation takes place when temperature is close to the maximum point V. Condensation depends upon the amount of cooling and the relative humidity of the air. Options: 

a. I, II, IV and V 

b. I, II, III and V 

c. I, III and V 

d. II, III, IV and V 

Ans. (b) 

3. Which of the following fact is true about the formation of ‘Dew’? 

a. Dew point must be above the freezing point 

b. Dew point must be below the freezing point 

c. When the temperature of an air mass containing a large quantity of water vapour falls all of a  sudden 

d. All of the above 

Ans. (a) 

4. On which of the following two basis, condensation can be classified? 

a. Temperature and pressure 

b. Location and humidity 

c. Temperature and location 

d. Location and pressure 

Ans. (c) 

5. Which of the following is not a form of condensation ? 

a. Drizzle

b. Mist 

c. Fog 

d. Dew 

Ans. (a) 

6. -------------is a mass of minute water droplets or tiny crystals of ice formed by the condensation. a. Frost 

b. Smog 

c. Mistral 

d. Cloud 

Ans. (d) 

7. Due to which of the following forms of condensation, the visibility becomes poor to zero? a. Frost 

b. Fog and mist 

c. Clouds 

d. Drizzle 

Ans. (b) 

8. When a sample of air said to be saturated ? Pick out the correct option. 

a. The air containing moisture to its full capacity at a given temperature 

b. When a specific percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere at a given temperature c. Moisture retaining capacity of air in per unit air 

d. All of the above 

Ans. (a) 

9. Which of the following is not matched correctly ? 

FORMS OF  

PRECIPITATION CHARACTERISTICS 

a. Precipitation - release of moisture after the condensation of water vapour  b. Sleet - frozen raindrops and refrozen melted snow-water. 

c. Snowfall - Fine drops of rain 

d. Hailstones - formed by the rainwater passing through the colder layers Ans. (c) 

10. Which of the following is not a type of rainfall ? 

a. Convectional rainfall 

b. Orographic rainfall 

c. Cyclonic rainfall 

d. Plutonic rainfall 

Ans. (d) 

11. Identify the form of precipitation by using following hint. 

‘Moisture is released in the form of hexagonal crystals when the temperature is lower than the 0॰C’ a. Hailstones 

b. Snowfall 

c. Rainfall 

d. Sleet 

Ans. (b) 

12. Which of the following clouds are formed at high altitude and always look white in colour?  a. Cirrus 

b. Cumulus  

c. Stratus 

d. Nimbus 

Ans. (a) 

13. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct answers with the help of given codes

 COLUMN I COLUMN II  

 (Types of Clouds) (Characteristics) 

I. Cirrus i Extremely dense and opaque to sun rays II. Stratus ii Thin and detatched having a feathery appearance III. Nimbus iii Look like cotton wool 

IV. Cumulus iv Layered clouds covering large portion of the sky 

Options : 

 I II III IV 

a. iii iv i ii 

b. ii iv i iii 

c. ii iii i iv 

d. iv iii ii i 

Ans. (b) 

14. Which of the following statements are true about the world distribution of rainfall? Choose the  correct answer with the help of given options. 

I. As we proceed from the equator towards the poles, rainfall goes on decreasing steadily.  II. The coastal areas of the world receive greater amounts of rainfall than the interior of the  continents. 

III. The rainfall is more over the oceans than on the landmasses of the world because of being great  sources of water. 

IV. Between the latitudes 350 and 400 N and S of the equator, the rain is scanty on the eastern  coast. 

Options: 

a. I, II and IV 

b. II, III and IV 

c. I, II and III 

d. III and IV 

Ans. (c) 

15. In which of the following regions, rainfall is distributed evenly throughout the year? a. The equatorial belt 

b. The eastern part of cool temperate regions 

c. The northern parts of all continents 

d. The western part of tropical region 

Ans. (a) 

16. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: The rainfall is more over the oceans than on the landmasses of the world.   Reason : Oceans are the great sources of water. 

Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct 

b. Only Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c) 

17. The area situated on the leeward side, which gets less rainfall is known as the-------------------------. a. Relief rain 

b. Humid region

c. Arid region 

d. rain-shadow area  

Ans. (d) 

18. between 45॰ and 65॰ N and S of equator, due to the westerlies, the rainfall is first received on which  part of the continents? 

a. On eastern margins 

b. On western margins 

c. On northern margins 

d. On southern margins 

Ans. (b) 

19. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion:. The leeward slopes remain rainless and dry.  

 Reason : The area situated on the leeward side, gets less rainfall and known as the rain-shadow area. Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct but not related to each other 

b. Only Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (a) 

20. Which of the following point is correctly depict the term ‘latent heat of vapouraisation’ a. The transformation of water vapour into water 

b. Condensation of water directly into ice 

c. The temperature at which the water starts evaporating 

d. The air containing moisture to its full capacity 

Ans. (c) 

21. What percentage of water vapour by volume we found in the atmosphere? 

a. Zero to four percent 

b. Two to three percent 

c. Zero to three percent 

d. Zero to two percent 

Ans. (a)

 L-11 WORLD CLIMATE AND CLIMATE CHANGE 

1. Which of the following is not an approach adopted for classifying climate ? 

a. Empirical 

b. Genetic 

c. Applied 

d. Observational 

Ans. (d) 

2. The most widely used classification of climate is the-------------- climate classification scheme developed  by----------------------------. 

a. Applied, Thornwaite 

b. Genetic, V. Koeppen 

c. Empirical, V. Koeppen 

d. None of the above 

Ans. (c) 

3. Which of the following two elements were taken by Koeppen to schematised the world’s climate ? a. Temperature and Vegetation 

b. Temperature and Precipitation 

c. Precipitation and Vegetation 

d. Temperature and Pressure 

Ans. (b) 

4. How many climatic groups were based on precipitation as recognised by V. Koeppen. a. One 

b. Four 

c. Three 

d. Two 

Ans. (a) 

5. According to Koeppen’s climatic scheme, letter ‘B’ denotes which of the following types of climate? a. Tropical 

b. Dry climates 

c. Warm temperate 

d. Cold climates 

Ans. (b) 

6. Match the letters (Column I) used by Koeppen to schematised world climate with their climatic groups  (Column II) and choose the correct answers with the help of given codes 

 COLUMN I (LETTERS) COLUMN II (CLIMATIC GROUPS) I. A i Cold climates 

II. C ii High Land 

III. D iii Warm Temperate 

IV. E iv Tropical climates 

V. H v Cold snow forest climates 

Options : 

 I II III IV V 

a. iii iv i ii v 

b. ii i iv v iii

c. ii iii i v iv 

d. iv iii v i ii 

Ans. (d) 

7. Which of the following is not matched correctly ? 

SUB DIVISION CLIMATE TYPE 

a. Am - Tropical Monsoon Climate 

b. Cwa - Humid Subtropical Climate 

c. Af - Mediterranean Climate 

d. Cfa - Humid Subtropical Climate 

Ans. (c) 

8. In which of the following area, tropical monsoon type climate is not found ? a. Indian sub-continent 

b. Central California 

c. North Eastern part of South America  

d. Northern Australia 

Ans. (b) 

9. Following characteristics are found in which type of climate ? 

➢ Hot, dry summer and mild, rainy winter. 

➢ Monthly average temperature in summer is around 25° C and in winter below 10°C.  ➢ The annual precipitation ranges between 35 - 90 cm. 

a. Mediterranean Climate  

b. Humid Subtropical Climate 

c. Tropical Wet Climate 

d. Tropical Monsoon Climate 

Ans. (a) 

10. Which of the following clearly explains the meaning of greenhouse effect? 

a. Concentration point of GHGs 

b. The processes that warm the atmosphere 

c. The gases that absorb long wave radiation 

d. The transmission of incoming solar radiation into space 

Ans. (b) 

11. Which of the following years was observed the warmest year of the 20th century? a. 1991 

b. 1995 

c. 1998 

d. 1999 

Ans. (c) 

12. What was the limit of carbon dioxide emission was bound by the Kyoto protocol for 35 industrialised  countries till 2012 ? 

a. 7 percent 

b. 3 percent 

c. 4 percent 

d. 5 percent 

Ans. (d) 

13. Which of the following gas is not included in the category of GHGs (Green House Gases) ? a. Carbon dioxide 

b. Sulphur dioxide 

c. Chlorofluorocarbons 

d. Nitrous oxide

Ans. (b) 

14. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: Ozone occurs in the stratosphere.  

 Reason : Ultra-violet rays convert oxygen into ozone in stratosphere. Thus ultra violet rays do not reach  the earth’s surface. 

Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct but not related to each other 

b. Only Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c) 

15. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: The CFCs which drift into the stratosphere destroy the ozone. 

 Reason : Large depletion of ozone occurs over Antarctica. 

Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct but not related to each other 

b. Only Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (d) 

16. Which of the following facts are related with Global warming. Choose the correct answer from the  given options. 

I. The effect of global warming may not be uniform everywhere. 

II. Rise in the sea level due to melting of glaciers and ice-caps  

III. Thermal expansion of the sea may inundate large parts of the coastal area and islands IV. Lack of fishing grounds 

Options: 

a. I, II and IV 

b. II, III and IV 

c. I, II and III 

d. All are related 

Ans. (c) 

17. The largest concentration of GHGs in the atmosphere is --------------------------. a. Carbon dioxide 

b. Chlorofluorocarbons 

c. Nitrous oxide 

d. Carbon monoxide 

Ans. (a) 

18. Which of the following is not associated with the astronomical causes of climate change ? a. Sunspots activities 

b. Volcanism 

c. Millankovitch oscillations 

d. The wobbling of the earth and the change in the earth’s axial tilt 

Ans. (b) 

19. Which of the following options correctly implies the meaning of sunspots ? 

a. Hot points available on sun’s surface 

b. Light and hot patches on the sun 

c. Dark and cooler patches on the sun

d. Cool transparent points on the sun 

Ans. (c) 

20. What happens if the sunspots increases ? 

a. cooler and wetter weather and greater storminess occur. 

b. warm and drier conditions prevail 

c. Hot humid conditions occur 

d. Cooler and dry conditions occur 

Ans. (a) 

21. In which of the following climatic regions, the condition of permafrost found where the subsoil is  permanently frozen ? 

a. Ice cap climate 

b. Cold climate with humid winters 

c. Marine west coast climate 

d. Tundra climate 

Ans. (d) 

22. In which of the following types of climate, vertical zonation of layering of climatic types found ? a. Tundra climate 

b. Highland climates 

c. Cold snow forest climates 

d. Polar climates 

Ans. (b)

L-12 WATER (OCEANS) 

1. About what percent of the planetary water is found in the oceans ? 

a. 71 Percent 

b. 78 Percent 

c. 74 Percent 

d. 95 Percent 

Ans. (a) 

2. Which of the following is the shallowest part of the oceans? 

a. The Deep sea plain 

b. The Oceanic deeps 

c. The continental shelf 

d. The continental slope 

Ans. (c) 

3. Which of the following region has the largest continental shelf in the world? a. Coasts of Chile 

b. The west coast of Sumatra 

c. The eastern coast of India 

d. The Siberian shelf in the Arctic Ocean 

Ans. (d) 

4. Which of the following features of the oceans possess the flattest and smoothest regions of the  world ? 

a. Oceanic deeps or trenches 

b. Deep sea plain 

c. Submarine canyons 

d. Mid-Oceanic ridges 

Ans. (b) 

5. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct answers with the help of given codes 

 COLUMN I COLUMN II  

 (Types of Clouds) (Characteristics) 

I. Atoll i Mountain with pointed summit under sea water II. Seamount ii Deep sea valleys found cutting across the continental shelves III. Guyots iii A flat topped seamount 

IV. Submarine Canyon iv Low islands found in the tropical oceans consisting of   coral reefs 

Options : 

 I II III IV 

a. iii iv i ii 

b. ii iv i iii 

c. iv i iii ii 

d. iv iii ii i 

Ans. (c) 

6. Which of the following factors don’t affect the temperature of ocean water?  a. Altitude 

b. Unequal distribution of land and water 

c. Prevailing wind 

d. Ocean currents

Ans. (a) 

7. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: The winds blowing from the land towards the oceans drive warm surface water away form the  coast resulting in the upwelling of cold water from below.  

 Reason : Movement of water due to winds result into the longitudinal variation in the temperature.   Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct but not related to each other 

b. Only Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c) 

8. Consider the following points regarding the temperature distribution of oceans. Choose the right  answer from the options given below. 

I. The oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat due to their contact with larger  extent of land. 

II. The temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles  III. Warm ocean currents raise the temperature in cold areas while the cold currents decrease the temperature in warm ocean areas. 

IV. Prevailing wind creates the longitudinal variation in the temperature 

Options: 

a. I, II and IV 

b. II, III and IV 

c. I, II and III 

d. All are true 

Ans. (d) 

9. The boundary region, from where there is a rapid decrease of temperature in ocean, is called the------- -----. 

a. Anticline 

b. Thermocline 

c. Syncline 

d. Boundary line 

Ans. (b) 

10. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: The maximum temperature of the oceans is always at their surfaces.   Reason : Oceans directly receive the heat from the sun and the heat is transmitted to the lower sections  of the 

 oceans through the process of convection.  

 Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct but not related to each other 

b. Only Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (d) 

11. -------------- is the term used to define the total content of dissolved salts in sea water. a. Salinity 

b. Alkalinity 

c. Temperature 

d. Halocline

Ans. (a) 

12. Which of the following statement is false regarding the salinity of ocean water ? a. The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend mainly on evaporation and precipitation b. In polar regions, highest salinity found in oceans 

c. Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the fresh water flow from rivers d. Wind influences salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas. 

Ans. (b) 

13. Which of the following value is considered as the upper limit to ‘brackish water’ ? a. 22.7 gms/1000gms sea water 

b. 21.7 gms/1000gms sea water 

c. 24.7 gms/1000gms sea water 

d. 23.7 gms/1000gms sea water 

Ans. (c) 

14. Which of the following factors is responsible for the salinity variation in the Pacific Ocean? a. Its deepness and large size 

b. Its vastness and large area 

c. Its quantity of water 

d. Its shape and larger areal extent 

Ans. (d) 

15. Which of the following water bodies containing highest salinity? 

a. Lake Van in Turkey 

b. Great salt lake 

c. Black sea 

d. Caspian sea 

Ans. (a) 

16. Arrange the following water bodies in ascending order in terms of salt content found in them. Choose  the correct answer from the options given below 

i. Dead Sea 

ii. Lake Van 

iii. Great Salt Lake 

a. i, ii, iii 

b. ii, i, iii 

c. iii, i, ii 

d. ii, iii, i 

Ans. (b) 

17. Which of the following factors is responsible for the low salinity trend in the Bay of Bengal? a. Due to high evaporation and low influx of fresh water 

b. Due to small size 

c. Due to influx of river water 

d. Due to low evaporation 

Ans. (c) 

18. Name the zone where salinity increases sharply in the oceans 

a. Thermocline 

b. Anticline 

c. Syncline 

d. Halocline 

And. (d) 

19. Which of the following factors affect the nature of salinity. Choose the correct answer from the  options given below ?

I. Salinity at the surface increases by the loss of water to ice or evaporation, or decreased by the  input of fresh waters. 

II. The lower salinity water rests above the higher salinity dense water that leads to stratification by  salinity. 

III. Increasing salinity of seawater causes its density to increase 

Options: 

a. I, II 

b. II, III 

c. I, III 

d. All I, II and III 

Ans. (d) 

20. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options  given below- 

 Assertion: Salinity at depth is very much fixed.  

 Reason : There is no way that water is ‘lost’, or the salt is ‘added. 

 Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct but not related to each other 

b. Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c)

 L-13 MOVEMENTS OF THE OCEAN WATER 

1. Which of the following is a horizontal motion of water? 

a. Tides 

b. Ocean currents 

c. Prevailing winds 

d. Upwelling of cold water from subsurface 

Ans. (b) 

2. The movement of which of the following is actually a form of energy not the water? a. Waves 

b. Tides 

c. Ocean currents 

d. Sinking of surface water 

Ans. (a) 

3. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: The motion of the surface water seldom affects the stagnant deep bottom water of the oceans.   Reason : This is due to the friction occurring between the dynamic water and the sea floor. Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct but not related to each other 

b. Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c) 

4. Which of the following points clearly explains the meaning of a ‘Tide’? 

a. These are the horizontal motion of water 

b. The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or twice a day 

c. They represent a regular volume of water in a definite path and direction 

d. These are differences in water density 

Ans. (b) 

5. Study the given diagram carefully and fill the blank with appropriate word given in the options below.

a. Ebb 

b. Tidal currents 

c. Surges 

d. Tidal bulge 

Ans. (d)

6. Which of the following is the main reason behind creating surges in ocean waters? a. Due to meteorological effects such as winds and atmospheric pressure changes b. Due to the gravitational attraction of the moon and the centrifugal force 

c. Due to the attraction of moon 

d. None of the above 

Ans. (a) 

7. Which of the following is characterised as Semi-diurnal tides? 

a. One high tide and one low tide during each day 

b. Tides having variations in height 

c. Two high tides and two low tides each day 

d. Seven days interval between two tides 

Ans. (c) 

8. Which of the following point correctly depict the meaning of ‘Perigee’? 

a. when the moon is farthest from earth 

b. when the moon’s orbit is closest to the earth  

c. When the earth is closest to the sun 

d. When the earth is farthest from the sun 

Ans. (b) 

9. Which of the following conditions prevails on 4thJuly ? 

a. Perigee 

b. Apogee 

c. Perihelion 

d. Aphelion 

Ans. (d) 

10. On which of the following day, high tide observed? 

a. On new moon 

b. When the sun and moon are at right angles 

c. When the earth is closest to the sun  

d. When the moon is closest to the earth 

Ans. (a) 

11. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: The tides can be predicted well in advance.  

 Reason : Tides help the navigators and fishermen to plan their activities.  

Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct but not related to each other 

b. Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (a) 

12. Which of the following primary forces are responsible for the origin of ocean currents? Choose the  correct answer from the options given below ? 

(i) heating by solar energy; 

(ii) wind;  

(iii) gravity;  

(iv) coriolis force 

(v)Water density 

Options: 

a. (i), (ii) and (v) 

b. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

c. (i), (ii) and (iii)  

d. (i) and (iii) only 

Ans. (b) 

13. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: Near the equator the ocean water is about 8 cm higher in level than in the middle latitudes.  Reason : Heating by solar energy causes the water to expand  

Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct but not related to each other 

b. Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c) 

14. -----------------tends to pull the water down the pile and create gradient variation. a. Gravity 

b. Ocean currents 

c. Coriolis force 

d. Wind 

Ans. (a) 

Note : Study the map given below and choose the correct answers of question numbers from 15 to 19.  15. Cold currents are usually found on the-------------------- of the continents in the low and middle latitudes. 

a. South coast 

b. North coast 

c. East coast 

d. west coast 

Ans. (d) 

16. warm currents bring warm water into cold water areas and are usually observed on the--------------- of  continents in the low and middle latitudes

a. East coast 

b. West coast 

c. North coast 

d. South coast 

Ans. (a) 

17. Which of the following currents belongs to Indian Ocean? 

a. Canaries current 

b. Humboldt(Peru) current 

c. Agulhas current 

d. Gulf stream 

Ans. (c) 

18. Choose the warm ocean currents from the options given below 

I. Gulf stream 

II. Kuroshio current 

III. Labrador current 

IV. North Atlantic drift 

V. Benguela current 

Options: 

a. I, II and V 

b. I, II and IV 

c. I, IV and V 

d. All 

Ans. (b) 

19. Which of the following is not matched correctly 

OCEAN CURRENTS OCEAN IN WHICH FOUND 

a. Gulf stream - Atlantic ocean 

b. Agulhas current - Indian ocean 

c. Oyashio current - Pacific ocean 

d. California current - Atlantic ocean 

Ans. (d) 

20. Which of the following statement is not true about the ocean currents ? 

a. In regions of pronounced monsoonal flow, the monsoon winds influence the current movements. b. The oceanic circulation transports heat from one latitude belt to another in a manner similar to the  heat transported by the general circulation of the atmosphere. 

c. Ocean currents bring huge amount of fishes with their flow 

d. The mixing of warm and cold currents help to replenish the oxygen and favour the growth of  planktons, the primary food for fish population 

Ans. (c)

L-14 BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION 

1. The basic cause for weathering variations and resultant biodiversity is the input of ----------- and ----------

      a. Solar energy, water 

b. Solar energy, photosynthesis 

c. Photosynthesis, Water 

d. Photosynthesis, Carbon cycle 

2. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: Biodiversity is not found evenly on the earth.  

 Reason : Biodiversity is consistently richer in the tropics.  

Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct but not related to each other 

b. Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (b) 

3. Which of the following facts is not true about biodiversity ? 

a. Biodiversity is the number and variety of organisms found within a specified geographic region. b. It refers to the varieties of plants, animals and micro-organisms, the genes they contain and the  ecosystems they form.  

c. It relates to the similarity among living organisms on the earth, including the similarity within and  between the species. 

d. It is a result of hundreds of millions of years of evolutionary history. 

Ans. (c) 

4. Which of the following regions is rich in biodiversity? 

a. Tropical 

b. Temperate 

c. Polar 

d. Mid-latitudinal region 

Ans. (a) 

5. Which of the following is not considered as a level of biodiversity in the world ? a. Genetic diversity 

b. Species diversity 

c. Ecosystem diversity 

d. Scientific diversity 

Ans. (d)  

6. Groups of individual organisms having certain similarities in their physical characteristics are called------ -----. 

a. Species 

b. Ecosystem 

c. Biosphere 

d. None of the above 

Ans. (a) 

7. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: Human beings are different in their characteristics such as height, colour, physical appearance,  etc., considerably.

 Reason : This is due to genetic diversity and this genetic diversity is essential for a healthy breeding of   population of species 

Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct but not related to each other 

b. Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c)  

8. Which of the following is true about the ‘species diversity’? 

a. It refers to the variation of genes within species. 

b. It relates to the number of species in a defined area. 

c. That means, every organism, besides extracting its needs, also contributes something of useful to  other organisms 

d. It is essential for a healthy breeding of population of species 

Ans. (b) 

9. Which of the following is a serious ill effect of loss of species? 

a. Species capture and store energy 

b. Species produce and decompose organic materials 

c. Help to cycle water and nutrients throughout the ecosystem 

d. It would decrease the ability of the system to maintain itself 

Ans. (d) 

10. Which of the following is related to ‘crop diversity’? 

a. Manufacture of food 

b. Pharmaceutical 

c. Cosmetic products 

d. Production of timber  

Ans. (a) 

11. How the biodiversity affects the world negatively while it plays economic role? Choose the correct  option. 

a. The concept of biological resources is responsible for the deterioration of biodiversity. b. The origin of new conflicts dealing with rules of division and appropriation of natural resources. c. The demand is more than the availability of resources 

d. All of the above 

Ans. (b) 

12. Species which are not the natural inhabitants of the local habitat but are introduced into the system,  are 

called----------------------. 

a. Endemic species 

b. Rare species 

c. Exotic species 

d. Extinct species 

Ans. (c) 

13. Which of the following is not a natural cause of loss of biodiversity ? 

a. Earthquakes 

b. Volcanic eruptions 

c. Droughts 

d. Deforestation 

Ans. (d) 

14. Which of the following groups of animals are always remain the main target of poachers that rendered  them in endangered category ?

a. Tigers, elephants, rhinoceros, crocodiles 

b. Monkeys, Hyenas, Antelopes, Yak 

c. Lion, Horses, Bears, Red Panda 

d. Crocodiles, snakes, bears, deer 

Ans. (a) 

15. What stands for IUCN ? 

a. International United Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources 

b. International Union Council of Nature and Natural Resources 

c. International Union of Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources 

d. International United Corporation of Nature and Natural Resources 

Ans. (c) 

16. Consider the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the options given  below- 

 Assertion: Biodiversity is important for human existence 

 Reason : All forms of life are so closely interlinked that disturbance in one gives rise to imbalance in the  others. 

Options: 

a. Both assertion and reason are correct but not related to each other 

b. Both assertion and reason are incorrect 

c. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion d. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion Ans. (c) 

17. Which of the following was the main aim of enacting Wild Life Protection Act, 1972? a. To kept them in national parks and zoos for their protection 

b. To protect, preserve and propagate the variety of species within natural boundaries c. To give them legal protection 

d. To increase their population by providing them safe and protective environment Ans. (b) 

18. Which of the following groups of countries possess the Mega diversity Centres of the world  a. U.S.A., France, China, Germany 

b. Germany, New Zealand, France, Equador 

c. Malaysia, Russia, Ukraine, Nepal 

d. Brazil, Columbia, India, Mexico 

Ans. (d) 

19. Hotspots are defined according to their -------------------. 

a. Vegetation 

b. Rainfall 

c. Animals 

d. Variety of biological resources 

Ans. (a) 

20. Which of the following statements are true regarding biodiversity? Choose the right answers from the  given options: 

i. Most, but not all, of the hotspots rely on species-rich ecosystems for food, firewood, cropland, and  income from timber. 

ii. Plants are important because these determine the primary productivity of an ecosystem. iii. Main concentration of mega diversity centres is found in Mid latitudinal areas iv. The islands of Hawaii have many unique plants and animals that are threatened by introduced  specie. 

Options: 

a. i, iii, iv

b. i, ii, iv 

c. i, ii, iii 

d. ii and iii 

Ans. (b)

L-1 INDIA – LOCATION 

1. Which of the following latitude extensions is relevant in terms of the expansion of the entire land of India? 

(A) 8°41′N से 35°7′ N 

(B) 8°4′ N से35°6′ N 

(C) 8°4′ N से37°6′ N 

(D) 6°45′ N से37°6′ N 

Ans. (D) 6°45′ N to 37°6′ N 

2. What is the total area of India? 

(A) 32.8 thousand sq km 

(B) 24.6 lakh sq km 

(C) 32.8 lakh sq km 

(D) 3200 sq km. 

Ans. (C) 32.8 sq. km 

3. The geographical area of India is what percentage of the geographical area of the world? (A) 32.8% 

(B) 8.4% 

(C) 2.4% 

(D) 4.2% 

Ans (C) 2.4% 

4. India is spread between how many latitudes and longitudes? 

(A) nearly 30 

(B) nearly 25 

(C) nearly 40 

(D) nearly 20 

Ans :- (A) nearly 30 

Explanation:- 

5. If you travel from Rajasthan to Nagaland in a straight line, which one of the following rivers will  you not cross? 

(A) Yamuna 

(B) Indus 

(C) Brahmaputra 

(D) Ganga

Ans :- (B) Indus 

6. Which of the following countries has the longest terrestrial border with India? 

(A) Bangladesh 

(B) Pakistan 

(C) China 

(D) Myanmar 

Answer:- (A) Bangladesh 

7. What is the length of India's maritime boundary line including islands? (A) 6,100 km. 

(B) 7,516.6 km. 

(C) 15,200 km. 

(D) 22,716.6 km. 

Ans :- (B) 7,516.6 km.

8. Which of the following is the standard meridian (longitude) of India? (A) 68°7′ eastern longitude 

(B) 97°25′ eastern longitude 

(C) 82°30′ eastern longitude 

(D) 82°30′ eastern longitude 

Ans :- (C) 82°30′ eastern longitude 

9. Tropic of Cancer does not passes through which of the following group of states ? (A) Gujarat and West Bengal 

(B) Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh 

(C) Jharkhand and Tripura 

(D) Maharashtra and  

Orissa 

Ans. (D) 

10. When did Telangana become the 29th state of India ? 

(A) June 2014 

(B) November 2014 

(C) April 2016 

(D) May 2015 

Ans:- June 2014 

11. Which of the following countries is smaller than India in area ? (A) Russia 

(B) United States 

(C) Sri Lanka 

(D) Brazil 

Answer:- (C) Sri Lanka 

12. What is the total length of India from north to south? 

(A) 2933 km. 

(B) 3214 km. 

(C) 7516 km. 

(D) 15200 

km. 

Ans :- (B) 3214 km.

13. What is the number of States in India at  

present? 

(A) 28 (B) 29 (C) 27 (D) 35 

Ans:- (A) 28 

14. India is located to the north of which of the ocean? 

(A) Pacific Ocean 

(B) Arctic Sea 

(C) Atlantic Ocean 

(D) Indian Ocean 

Answer:- (D) Indian Ocean 

15. Which of the following is not relevant to the benefit of India's position at the heart of Indianocean? 

(A) Natural Security 

(B) Expansion of Indian Culture 

(C) Expansion of Trade Relations 

(D) Catching of fishes 

Answer:- (D)Catching of fishes 

16. Which is the largest state in India by area? 

(A) Uttar Pradesh 

(B) Madhya Pradesh 

(C) Rajasthan 

(D) Bihar 

Ans.:- (C)Rajasthan 

17. Which of the following is a Union Territory located on the west coast of India? (A) Daman Diu and Dadar Nagar Haveli 

(B) Laddakh 

(C) Andaman and Nicobar Island Groups 

(D) Chandigarh 

Answer:- (A) Daman Diu and Dadar Nagar Haveli 

18. Which of the following countries is larger than India in area? 

(A) China 

(B) France

(C) Egypt 

(D) Iran 

Ans :- (B)China 

  

 20. Which of the following is the easternmost longitude of India ?  

 (A) 97°25′ E 

(B) 77°6′ E 

(C) 68°7′ E 

(D) 77°6′ E 

Ans :- (A) 97°25′ E 

21.The borders of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim meets which of thefollowing country? 

(A) China 

(B) Bhutan 

(C) Nepal 

(D) Myanmar 

Answer:- (C) Nepal 

22. In the summer vacation, if you want to go to Kavaratti, which Union Territory will you go to? (A) Andaman and Nicobar 

(B) Daman and Diu 

(C) Puducherry 

(D) Lakshadweep 

Answer:- (D) Lakshadweep 

23.Our friends are residents of a country which does not border India. Please tell me the  name of that country from the following? 

(A) Bangladesh 

(B) Nepal 

(C) Tajikistan 

(D) Bhutan 

Answer:- (C) Tajikistan 

24.Which of the following countries is not included in the Indian subcontinent? (A) Pakistan 

(B) Bangladesh 

(C) Myanmar 

(D) Bhutan 

Answer:- (C) 

Myanmar 

25.How far ahead or behind Indian standard time from 'Greenwich' Mean time? (A) 5 hours 30 minutes behind 

(B) 5 hours 30 minutes ahead 

(C) 4 hours 30 minutes ahead 

(D) 4 hours 30 minutes behind 

Answer:- (B) 5 hours 30 minutes aheadt 

26. Which of the following is a pass located in Himalayas (A) Nathula 

(B) Bhorghat 

(C) Aravali 

(D) Shiwalik 

Answer:- (A)  

Nathula 

27.Which of the following states has the longest coastline in India? (A) Maharashtra 

(B) Andhra Pradesh 

(C) Tamil Nadu 

(D) Gujarat 

Ans. (D)  

Gujarat

28.What is the southernmost end of the mainland of India? 

(A) Chennai 

(B) Kumari Antreep 

(C) Port Blair 

(D) Kavaratti 

Answer:- (B) Kumari Antareep 

MAP BASED QUESTIONS 

1. Which of the following states of India has the longest coastline ? a. Andhra Pradesh 

b. Gujarat 

c. Tamil Nadu

d. Maharashtra 

Ans. (b) 

2.Which of the following states is not included in the group of seven north-eastern most  states? 

a. West Bengal 

b. Assam 

c. Arunachal Pradesh 

d. Manipur 

Ans. (a) 

3. Which of the following states does not share international border with China ? 

a. Sikkim 

b. Uttaranchal 

c. Arunachal Pradesh 

d. Nagaland 

Ans. (d) 

4. Which is the largest state in India in terms of area shared ? 

a. Maharashtra 

b. Rajasthan 

c. Madhya Pradesh 

d. Karnataka 

Ans. (b) 

5. Name the state where Thar desert is found ? 

a. Andhra Pradesh 

b. Gujarat 

c. Tamil Nadu 

d. Rajasthan 

Ans, (d) 

Study the map of India carefully and answer the questions given below

1. Which of the following longitudes has been selected as the standard meridian for India?  a. 82ᵒ 30’ E 

b. 8ᵒ 4’ E 

c .89ᵒ 32’ E 

d . None of the above 

Ans. (a) 

2. What is the total length of the beach for the entire Indian land? 

a. 7517 K.M.  

b. 6100 K.M. 

c. 7500 K.M. 

d. 6517 K.M. 

Ans. (a) 

3. Which of the following is not a neighbour of India located in the North-East? a. China 

b. Bangladesh 

c. Bhutan 

d. Pakistan 

Ans. (d) 

4. Which is the far easternost meridian of India? 

a. 68० 7’ E b. 97० 25’ E 

c. 97० 8’ E d. 36० 7’ E 

Ans. (b) 

5. What is the north-southern extension of India? 

a. 3214 Kilometer 

b. 2933 km 

c. 3412 km 

d. 2393 km 

Ans. (a)

SOME MORE QUESTIONS 

1 . Being a large geographical unit, India is also called the subcontinent, which of the following countries does not join the Indian subcontinent? 

a.Nepal 

a. Bhutan 

b. China 

c. Bangladesh 

Ans. (b)

2. India is located in---------------------- part of the Asian continent? 

a. Southern 

b. South-East 

c. East-West 

d. South-West 

Ans. (a) 

3. Which of the following physical forms separates Sri Lanka and India? 

a. Bay of Bengal and Palk Strait 

b. Gulf of Mannar and Palk Strait 

c. Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea 

d. Arabian Sea and Palk Strait 

Ans. (b) 

4 . Which of the following rivers is not related to India? 

a. Ganga 

b. Brahmaputra 

c. Godavari 

d. Nile 

Ans. (d) 

5 . What is the difference of about how many hours is seen in the time of the easternmost and westernmost parts of our country? 

a. 1 hour 50 min 

b. 2 hours 10 min 

c. 2 hours 

d. 1 hour 30 min 

Ans. (c) 

6 . India's latitude and longitude extension is about 30०, while its actual distance from north to south is 3214 km. And its distance from east to west is only 2933 km. l which of the following reasons is responsible for this?

a. The increasing distance between the two longitude lines towards the poles.

b. The decreasing distance between the two longitudinal lines towards the poles 

c. Decreasing distance between two latitudinal line 

d. Increasing distance between two latitudinal lines 

Ans. (b)