A BOOK BY ABRAR AHMAD KHAN & RUKHSANA BEGUM
Multiple Choice
Questions
Geography – 12th
L.1 HUMAN GEOGRAPHY- NATURE AND SCOPE
1. The theme of human geography is based on –
(A) The study of nature
(B) The study of human beings and their activities
(C) The relationship between man and his natural environment
(D) The study of phenomenon occurred on the surface of the
earth
Answer- (C)
2. “Human geography is a study of changing relationship
between unarresting man and unstable
earth” The core idea of above mentioned definition is –
(A) Dynamism in the relationship (B) Synthesis
(C) New conceptions of the interrelationship (D) Welfare
Answer-(A)
3. Which of the following Scholar (geographer) defined
geography as “The synthetic study of
relationship between human societies and the earth’s
surface”.
(A) Miss Ellen Semple (B) Vidal de la
Blache
(C) Friedrich Ratzel (D) Griffith
Taylor
Answer-(C)
4. Vidal de la Blache supported the idea of ______.
(A) Possibilism (B)
Determinism
(C) Behavioural School
(D) Radical School
Answer-(A)
5. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Scholar
Approach
(A)Friedrich Ratzel
Determinism
(B)Ellen C. Semple
Welfare
(C)Griffith Taylor
Neo Determinism
(D)Vidal de la Blache Possibilism
Answer-(B)
6. Make correct pairs from the following two columns and
select the correct option.
Period
Approach
1. Early colonial period
(a) Exploration & Description
2. Late 1950’s to the late 1960’s (b) Regional Analysis
3. Later colonial period
(c) Aerial Differentiation
4. 1930’s through the inter-war period (d) Spatial Organization
(A) 1. (a) 2.
(d) 3. (b) 4. (c)
(B) 1. (d) 2.
(a) 3. (c) 4. (b)
(C) 1. (b) 2.
(c) 3. (d) 4. (a)
(D) 1. (a) 2.
(b) 3. (c) 4. (d)
Answer-(A)
7. The core concern of ‘Stop & Go’ determinism is-
(a) The movement of human from a state of necessity to a
state of freedom.
(b) Human beings should adapt the dictates of nature.
(c) Possibilities can be created within a limit and there is
no free run without accidents.
(d) None of the above
Answer- (C)
8. Which factors helped the human to conquer nature?
(a) Intelligence
(b) Development of new thoughts
(c) Development of technology
(d) Discoveries and explorations of new ideas
Ans. (c)
9. Areal differentiations postulates the idea regarding
(a) Imperial and trade interests
(b) Elaboration and description of all aspects of a region
(c) Identification and uniqueness of a region
(d) Use of computers and sophisticated statistical tools.
10. Which of the following approach marked by the use of
computers and sophisticated
statistical tools
(a) Areal differentiations
(b)Regional analysis
(c) Spatial organization
(d) Exploration & description
Ans. (c)
11. Arrange the following approaches in a correct order
according to their development
1. Spatial organization
2. Regional approach
3. Areal differentiation
4. Humanistic approach
a. 2. , 3. , 1. , 4.
b. 1. , 2. , 3. ,
4.
c. 4. , 1. , 2. ,
3.
d. 3. , 2. , 1. ,
4.
Answer –(a)
12. Consider the following situations and choose suitable
title for them from the given options.
1. Very low level of technological development
2. The physical environment act as the “Mother Nature”
3. Afraiding and worshipping of nature by human being
Options-
a. Naturalization of humans
b. Humanization of nature
c.Neodeterminism
d. None of the above
Ans. (a)
13. Which of the following things are not created by nature?
a. Natural Vegetation
b. Soils
c. Farms d.
Landfarms
Ans. (c)
14. “Neither is there a situation of absolute necessity and
nor is there a condition of absolute
freedom, human beings can conquer nature by obeying it”.
Above mentioned lines are correctly defines the concept of—
a. Possibilism b.
Determinism
c. Humanism d. Neo
Determinism
Ans. (d)
15. Which factor helped human being a lot to move from a
“state of necessity to a state of
freedom”?
a. Technology b.
Listening or obeying of nature
c. Explorations c.
None of the above
Ans. (a)
L.2 THE WORLD POPULATION- DISTRIBUTION, DENSITY AND GROWTH
1. “Asia has many places where people are few and few places
where people are many”
Above mentioned remark about uneven distribution of Asia as
well as world population is given
by-
a. Dudley Stamp
b. G.B. Cressey
c. Hartshorne d.
Griffith Taylor
Ans. (b)
2. Patterns of population distribution and density of
population help us to understand-
a. Regional imbalances of an area
b. Demographic characteristics of any area
c. Uneven topography of an area
d. Developmental level of an area
Ans. (b)
3. The density of population is usually measured in-
a. Persons/cm area
b. Persons/sq km area
c. Persons/cubic area
d. All the above
Ans. (b)
4. When we found more than 200 persons on every square km
then the area will be considered
as-
a. Highly or densely populated b. sparsely populated
c. Rarely Populated
d. Under Populated
Ans. (a)
5. Which of the following area has very low density of
population?
a. North-Eastern part of USA b. High rainfall zones near the
Equator
c. Sweden in Europe
d. South and South-East Asia
Ans. (b)
6. Which of the following area is densely populated?
a. North-Western part of Europe b. Western China
c. North and South Pole
d. Southern India in Asia
Ans. (a)
7. Which is the most important factor that attract the human
inhabitation in particular area?
a. Availability of water
b. Urbanization
c. Minerals d.
Social factors
Ans. (a)
8. Which Factor is responsible for high density of
population found in Katanga Zambia located
in Africa?
a. Availability of mineral wealth (copper) b. Availability of good forest resources
c. Close social ties
d. Scenic landscapes
Ans. (a)
9. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
REGIONS FACTOR OF HIGH
DENSITY
a. Kobe-Osaka region in Japan Presence of industries
b. Mediterranean Regions
Pleasant climate
c. Ganga Plains
Scenic beauty
d. Mega cities
Good civic amenities and employment
Ans. (c)
10. The population growth or population change refers to
the-----------------of inhabitants of a
territory during a specific period of time.
a. Decrease in number
b. Change in number
c. Increase in number
d. huge migration
Ans. (b)
11. Which factors affect the mortality rate of a region?
a. Demographic Structure
b. Social advancement
c. Level of its economic development d. All the above
Ans. (d)
12. Which of the following is not a PULL factor of
migration?
a. Better job opportunities b. Peace and stability
c. Socio-economic backwardness d. Security of life
Ans. (c)
13. Which of the following is not a PUSH factor of
migration?
a. Poor living conditions
b. Political turmoil
c. Epidemics d.
Pleasant climate
Ans. (d)
14. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
option from the given options-
1. Population grown rapidly during the sixteenth and
seventeenth century.
2. Expansion of world trade during sixteenth and seventeenth
century is an important cause of it.
a. Only 1 is correct.
b. Only 2 is correct
c. Both the statements are incorrect
d. Both statements are correct and statement 2 correctly
explains the statement 1.
Ans. (d)
15. Which of the following factor helped in the reduction of
birth rate and provided a stage for
accelerated population growth?
a. Technological advancement b. Industrial Revolution
c. Development of resources d. None of the above
Ans. (a)
16. How many years took to rise population from 5 billion to
6 billion?
a. 25 Years b. 12
Years c. 16 Years d. 11 Years
Ans. (b)
17. Consider the following points regarding the growing
population in developing world and
choose the correct options from the given options;
1. Birth rate is extremely high as compared to death rate.
2. Need for children to go out and work to bring in income
for the family.
3. Lack of availability and knowledge of contraception and
family planning.
Options;
a. Only 1 and 2 are correct.
b. Only 2 and 3 are correct
c. All 1,2 and 3 are correct
d. All are incorrect
Ans. (c)
18. What kind of correlation we found between economic
development and population growth?
a. Positive b.
Negative
c. Partially positive and partially negative d. Question is not applicable
Ans. (b)
19. Which of the following may be interpreted as a
spontaneous effort to achieve a better balance
between population and resources?
a. Migration b.
Birth Rate
c. Death Rate d.
All the above
Ans. (a)
20. Which statement is true about the change in population?
1. Increase of population causes depletion of resources.
2. Population decline causes under development of resources.
3. The resources that had supported earlier are now
insufficient to maintain the population.
Options;
a. Only 1 is correct
b. Only 3 is correct
c. All 1, 2, and 3 are correct
d. All are incorrect
Ans. (c)
21. Which epidemics in Africa, some parts of CIS
(Commonwealth of Independent States) and
Asia have pushed up death rates and reduced average life
expectancy?
a. Cholera b.
T.B.
c. Dengue fever d.
HIV/AIDS
Ans. (d)
22. Which of the following countries is not considered as
low growth of population?
a. Liberia b.
Latvia
c. Estonia d.
Denmark
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following countries is not comes under the
category of high growth of
population?
a. Somalia b.
Albania
c. Germany d.
Italy
Ans. (b)
24. Which of the following feature is not related to First
stage of demographic transition?
a. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions.
b. Life expectancy is low.
c. People are mostly illiterate and have low level of
technology.
d. People are engaged in agriculture where large families
are an asset.
Ans. (a)
25. Which of the following statement is true about the last
stage of demographic transition?
a. Both fertility and mortality decline considerably.
b. Deliberately controls the family size.
c. The population becomes urbanized and literates.
d. All the above
Ans. (d)
L-4 HUMAN DEVELOPMENT
1. Which of the following points correctly defines the term
growth?
a. Refer to change over a period of time.
b. Quantitative and value neutral
c. May be positive or negative
d. All the above
Ans. (d)
2. Which of the following is the meaning of development?
a. Negative as well as positive
b. Qualitative change which is always value positive
c. When there is quantitative change, development takes
place
d. None of the above
Ans. (b)
3. Which of the only criterion was used earlier for many
decades to measure a country’s level of
development?
a. In terms of its economic growth
b. In terms of increased literacy
c. In terms of increasing basic amenities
d. In terms of more expenditure in the field of
education
Ans. (a)
4. Which of the following economists developed the concept
of Human Development?
a. AmartyaSen b.
KailashSatyarthi
c. Muhammad Yunus
d. Dr. Mehboob-ul-Haq
Ans. (d)
5. Which of the following is an important aspects of Human
Development?
a. Quality of life people enjoy in a country
b. Availability of opportunities
c. Freedoms they enjoy
d. All the above
Ans. (d)
6. According to Dr. Mehboob-ul-Haq, which of the following
is central point to all development?
a. Basic infrastructure
b. People
c. Stress on education
d. All of above
Ans. (b)
7. Which of the following point was mainly taken into
consideration regarding human
development described by Dr. Mehboob-ul-Haq?
a. Development that enlarges people choices
b. Continuous growth of country’s economy
c. Development of basic infrastructure
d. Development of educational facilities
Ans. (a)
8. Which of the following is the basic goal of development?
a. To create conditions where people can live meaningful
life
b. People must be healthy, be able to develop their talents
c. Participation of people in society and be free to achieve
their goals
d. All the above
Ans. (d)
9. Which of the following is not a key area of human
development?
a. Access to resources
b. Access to health
c. Access to education
d. Access to lead a luxurious life
Ans. (d)
10. Which of the following reasons are responsible for the
incapability and non freedom to make
even basic choices?
a. Their inability to acquire knowledge
b. Their material poverty
c. Social discrimination and inefficiency of institutions
d. All the above
Ans. (d)
11. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched
PILLARS OF HUMAN
DEVELOPENT INDICATORS
a. Equity - making
equal access to opportunities available to everybody
b. Sustainability - Continuity in the availability of
opportunities
c. Productivity - Resources must be used keeping in mind the
future
d. Empowerment - To have the power to make choices
Ans. (c)
12. Which of the following is most required to empower
people?
a. To provide better health facilities
b. Good governance and people-oriented policies
c. Each generation must have the same opportunities
d. Sustainable use of resources
Ans. (b)
13. An uneducated child cannot make the choice to be a
doctor because her choice has got
limited by her
a. lack of education
b. economic and social backwardness
c. Lack of health facilities
d. All the above
Ans. (a)
14. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly?
APPROACHES FEATURES
a. Income approach - Human development is seen as being
linked to income
b. Welfare Approach - It looks at human beings as
beneficiaries or targets of all
development
activities
c. Basic Needs Approach- Proposed by Dr. Mehboob-ul-Haq in
which human
choices are
considered
d. Capability Approach - Associated to Prof. Amartya Sen.
Building human
capabilities in
the areas of health, education and resources
Ans. (c)
15. Which of the following is chosen as the health indicator
of human development?
a. Life expectancy at birth b. Good health
c. Total expenditure on health services d. All the above
Ans. (a)
16. Which of the following indicators are used to asses’
access to knowledge?
a. Adult literacy rate
b. Gross enrolment ratio
c. Longer and healthier lives d. Both (a) and (b) are correct
Ans. (d)
17. Which of the following score represent the greater level
of human development?
a. When the score is closer to 0.268 b. When the score is closer to 1
c. When the score is closer to 0.586 d. When the score is closer to -1
Ans. (b)
18. How can we measure the access to resources?
a. Purchasing power in U.S. Dollars b. Per Capita Income
c. Gross income of country
d. Living standard of people
Ans. (a)
19. Which of the following criterion are used to show the
shortfall in human development in any
region?
a. The probability of not surviving till the age of 40
b. The number of people who do not have access to clean
water
c. The number of small children who are underweight
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
20. Which of the following countries is having lower rank in
terms of human development
index?
a. Sri Lanka b.
India
c. Tobago d.
Trinidad
Ans. (b)
21. Which of the following states performs much better in
human development despite having
lower per capita income?
a. Punjab b.
Haryana
c. Kerala d.
Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)
22. Which of the following countries attained a top rank in
terms of its Human Development
Index Value?
a. Norway b.
Denmark
c. Netherlands d.
Ireland
Ans. (a)
23. Consider the following points, evaluate them and choose
the correct option from the given
options
1. High level of human development group has 55 countries.
2. A higher investment in people and good governance has set
this group apart from others.
Options;
a. Both statements are true, statement 2 does not explain
statement 1 correctly
b. Both statements are true and statement 2 very correctly
explains the statement 1
c. Both statements 1 and 2 are wrong.
d. Both Statements
are invalid
Ans. (b)
24. Which of the following characteristics are related with
the countries having high level of
human development index?
a. Many of were former imperial powers and having low social
diversity
b. Most of the high scorer countries are located in Europe.
c. Most of countries represent the industrialized western
world
d. All the above
Ans. (d)
25. Which of the following factors are responsible for
having the low level of human
development index in some countries?
a. Political turmoil
b. Social instability in the form of civil war
c. Famine or high incidence of diseases d. All the above
Ans. (d)
L-5 PRIMARY ACTIVITIES
1. Which of the following is correct about the economic
activities?
a. These are human activities which generate income
b. They are broadly grouped in to primary, secondary,
tertiary and quaternary activities
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct
d. Only (a) is correct
Ans. (c)
2. Which of the following economic activities are directly
dependent on environment?
a. Primary activities
b. Secondary activities
b. c. Tertiary activities
d. Quaternary activities
3. Which of the following activity was associated with
earliest human beings?
a. Pastoralism b.
agriculture
c. Hunting and gathering
d. Mining
Ans. (c)
4. Consider and evaluate the following statements than
choose correct options for them
from the given options.
1. Many species now have become extinct or endangered due to
illegal hunting.
2. The early hunters used primitive tools made of stones,
twigs or arrows so the
number of animals killed were limited.
Options;
a. Only statement 1 is correct
b. Only statement 2 is correct
c. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
d. Both statements are incorrect
Ans. (c)
5. Consider the following characteristics and choose
suitable title for them from the given
options;
a. Practiced in regions with harsh climatic conditions,
often involves primitive societies.
b. Requires a small amount of capital investment
c. Operates at very low level of technology
Options;
a. Gathering b.
Hunting
c. Pastoralism d.
Nomadic herding
Ans. (a)
6. In which of the following areas gathering practiced?
a. Northern Canada
b. Amazon Basin
c. Northern
fringe of Australia d. All of aboveAns.
(d)
7. Which of the following is not related with the items
gathered by gatherer?
a. Balata b.
cosmetics
c. Wheat plant d.
rubber
Ans. (c)
8. Consider and evaluate the following statements and choose
the correct option from the
given options for the same.
I. Products of gathering cannot compete in the world market.
II. Synthetic products often of better quality and at lower
prices
Options;
a. Both the statements I and II are correct
b. Both statements I and II are correct and the statement II
is the true cause behind the
statement I.
c. Both the statements are incorrect.
d. Only statement I is true.
Ans. (b)
9. Which of the following factor is most important for the
movement of nomadic herders from
one place to another ?
a. Climatic conditions
b. Technological level
c. Amount of money
d. Quality of pastures and water
Ans. (d)
10.”Each nomadic community occupies a well-identified
territory as a matter of tradition”
Above mentioned line is an important characteristics of
which of the following activity?
a. Subsistence agriculture
b. Nomadic herding
c. Plantation agriculture
d. Collective farming
Ans. (b)
11. Make correct pairs from the given columns choose correct
options;
AREA OF NOMADIC HERDING
ANIMALS KEPT
1. Tropical Africa
(i) Yak and Llamas
2. Sahara and Asiatic desert (ii) Reindeer
3. Mountainous areas of Tibet and Andes (iii) Sheep and
goats
4. Arctic and sub Arctic areas (iv) Cattle
Options-
a. 1. (iv), 2. (iii), 3. (i), 4. (ii)
b. 1. (ii), 2.
(iv) 3. (iii), 4. (i)
c. 1. (i), 2.
(ii), 3. (iii),
4. (iv)
d. 1. (iii), 2. (i),
3. (iv), 4. (ii)
e. Ans. (a)
12. In Himalayan regions which of the following tribes are
linked with the activity of
Transhumance?
a. Bheels b.
Gonds
c. Bakarwals
d. Santhals
Ans. (c)
13. Which of the following are the chief characteristic of
Commercial livestock rearing?
a. Organized and capital intensive
b. Practiced on permanent ranches
c. Only one type of animal is reared
d. All the above
Ans. (d)
14. Grazing in parcels, is an important characteristics of
which of the following activity?
a. Nomadic herding
b. Commercial livestock rearing
c. Dairy farming d.
Factory farming
Ans. (b)
15. Commercial livestock rearing is not associated with
which of the following countries?
a. Central China
b. New Zealand
c. Australia d.
Argentina
Ans. (a)
16. Which of the following area is not associated with
Primitive subsistence farming?
a. Africa b.
South and Central America
c. New Zealand c.
South East Asia
Ans. (c)
17. Slash and burn agriculture is also known as –
a. Jhuming in North eastern India b. Milpa in Central America
c. Ladang in Indonesia
d. All the above
Ans. (d)
18. Which of the following factor is responsible for the
lessening trend reflected in the cycle of
‘Jhum’?
a. Uneven topography of North-eastern India
b. Loss of fertility in different parcels
c. Lack of technology
d. Due to river Brahmaputra and vast network of its
tributaries
Ans. (b)
19. Intensive subsistence agriculture is characterized by
which of the following factors?
a. Land holdings are very small due to high density of
population.
b. The yield per unit area is high but per labour
productivity is low
c. Single crop specialization
d. Only (a) and (b) are correct
Ans. (d)
20. Fodder crop is an important component of which of the
following farming?
a. Mediterranean Farming
b. Mixed Farming
c. Extensive commercial grain farming
d. Dairy Farming
Ans. (b)
21. Match the following pairs and choose the correct options
from the given options-
TYPES OF AGRICULTURE
CHARACTERISTICS
1.Dairy farming (i) Equal emphasis laid on crop cultivation
and animal husbandry
2.Mixed farming (ii)
Highly capital intensive
3. Mediterranean farming (iii) Farmers pool their resources
voluntarily For more efficient
and profitable
farming
4.Cooperative farming (iv) Specialized in grape
cultivation
Or
viticulture
Options;
a.1. (ii) , 2. (i) ,
3. (iv) , 4. (iii)
b. 1. (i) , 2. (ii) ,
3. (iii) , 4. (iv)
c. 1. (ii) , 2. (i) ,
3. (iv) , 4. (ii)
d. 1. (iv) , 2. (ii) ,
3. (i) , 4. (iii)
Ans. (a)
22. ‘Growing flowers’ especially tulips is the
specialization of which of the following countries?
a. Norway b.
Sweden
c. Netherlands
d. Belgium
Ans. (c)
.
23. Which of the following column is not matched correctly?
ACTIVITY CHARACTERISTICS
a. Truck farming
Growing of vegetables
b. Factory farming
Rearing of poultry and cattle
c. Market gardening
Growing of flowers
d. Viticulture
Rearing of fish
Ans. (d)
24. Which of the following is an important feature of
poultry farming and cattle rearing?
a. Breed selection and scientific breeding
b. Feeding of animals and poultry done on manufactured feed
stuff
c. Farmers used to pool in all their resources
d. Only (a) and (b) are correct
Ans. (d)
25. Which of the following crop is considered as the
principal crop?
a. Wheat b.
Barley
c. Maize d.
Oats
Ans. (a)
26.’Single crop specialization’ is the characteristics of
which of the following type of
agriculture?
a. plantation agriculture
b. Mediterranean agriculture
c. Intensive subsistence agriculture
d. None of the above
Ans. (d)
27. Which of the following will be considered as an economic
activity?
a. Teaching of students in the class by a teacher
b. Nursing of husband at home by a nurse
c. Giving services at free of cost at any religious place
d. Pilgrimage to old parents.
Ans. (a)
28. Which of the following is not an economic activity ?
a. Treatment of patient by a doctor
b. Selling of fruits by a fruit seller
c. Growing of crops by a farmer
d. Taking care of mother to her child
Ans. (d)
29. Which of the following is not a primary activity?
a. Animal herding
b. Services of an advocate
c. Fishing d.
Mining
Ans. (b)
30. Which of the following represent ‘Red Collar Jobs’?
a. People engaged in primary activities and their working
area is located outside the home
b. Mechanics, working in factories and industries
c. Peoples engaged in Research and Development
d. Teachers teaching in schools and universities and doctors
in hospitals
31. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
AREA PRIMARY ACTIVITY
a. Amazon Basin
Subsistence gathering
b. Arabian Peninsula
Nomadic Herding
c. Argentina
Extensive commercial grain farming
d. California
Commercial livestock rearing
Ans. (d)
32. Consider the following statements related with nomadic
herding-
1. The number of pastoral nomads has been decreasing.
2. This is mainly due to imposition of political boundaries.
Choose the correct options for the same-
a. Only 1 Is correct
b. Both 1 and 2 are correct
c. Only 2 is correct
d. d. Both are
incorrect
e. Ans. (b)
33. Which of the following is not a plantation crop?
a. Tea b. Rice
c. Rubber d.
Sugarcane
Ans.(b)
34. Which of the
following is not matched correctly?
COUNTRYMEN PLANTATION AGRICULTURE
a. French Coffee
in Africa
b. Britain Tea in
India
c. Japanese Coconut
in Sri Lanka
d. Holland
Sugarcane in Indonesia
e. Ans. (c)
35. Which of the following is not a feature of Dairy
farming?
a. It is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of
milch animals
b. It is practiced mainly near urban and industrial centers
c. Less capital investment is required
d. The largest area of Dairy farming is north –Western
Europe.
Ans. (c)
36. Which of the following country specializes in the
growing of flowers?
a. Canada b.
Netherlands
c. Tasmania d.
Denmark
Ans. (b)
37. Which of the following countries became most successful
in terms of Co-operative
Movement?
a. Canada b.
Denmark
c. Belgium d. Sweden
Ans. (b)
38. To which of the following, coffee estates are known for
in Brazil?
a. Fazenda b.
Truck Farming
c. Factory Farming
d. Dairy Farming
Ans. (a)
39. What is the meaning of Kolkhoz?
a. Commercial Farming
b. Collective Farming
c. Co-operative Farming
d. Market Gardening
Ans. (b)
40. Citrus fruits are the specialty of which of the
following agriculture?
a. Plantation Agriculture
b. Truck Farming
c. Mediterranean Agriculture d. Co-operative Agriculture
Ans. (a)
41. Which of the following is not matched correctly
a. When the ore lies deep below the surface - Shaft mining
b. When the minerals occur close to the surface - Open cast
mining
c. Group of farmers form a co-operative society by pooling
in their - Collective farming
Resources voluntarily for more efficient and profitable
farming
d. Kolkhoz - Soviet Union
42. In Europe livestock is reared on the
manufactured feedstuff. What does such kind of
agriculture called?
a. Factory Farming
b. Market Gardening
c. Truck Farming
d. Dairy Farming
Ans. (a)
43. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
a. India Jhuming
b. Mexico Milpa
c. Indonesia
Ladang
d. Europe
Conuco
Ans. (d)
44. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
option for the same;
1. Grape cultivation is the specialityof the Mediterranean
agriculture
2. Wines are produced from high quality grapes and the
inferior grapes are dried into raisins and
Currants
Options;
a. Only 1 is correct
b. Both 1 and 2 are correct
c. Only 2 is correct
d. Both are incorrect
e. Ans. (b)
45. Match the
column I to column II and make correct pairs and choose the correct answer
with the help of
given codes.
COLUMN I COLUMN II
i. Northern Canada
1. Subsistence Gathering
ii. Mongolia 2.
Nomadic Herding
iii. Western Europe
3. Commercial Dairy Farming
iv. Northern America
4. Factory Farming
.
Codes-
I II
III IV
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 4 1 2
3
Ans. (a)
46. Consider the following-
i. Brazil
ii. Denmark
iii. Netherlands
iv. New Zealand
Which of the above mentioned is famous for Dairy farming?
a. Only 1 and 3
b. Only 2 and 4
c. Only 1 and 4
d. Only 3 and 4
e. Ans. (b)
L. 6 SECONDARY ACTIVITIES
1. Which of the following economic activity transform raw
material into finished products?
a. Primary b.
Secondary
c. Tertiary d.
Quaternary
Ans. (b)
2. Secondary activities are mainly concerned with which of
the following?
a. Manufacturing industries
b. Processing industries
c. Construction or infrastructure industries
d. All the above
Ans. (d)
3. Which of the following is not an example of manufacturing
or secondary
activities?
a. Molding iron and steel
b. Extraction of minerals
c. Stamping out plastic toys
d. Assembling of
delicate computer components
Ans. (b)
4. Which of the following feature is not associated with
modern large scale
Manufacturing?
a. Production done by manually or by simple machines and
tools
b. Adoption of specialized methods of production
c. Based on organizational structure and stratification
d. Technological innovation through research and
development
Ans. (a)
5. Which of the following is the most important in terms of
location of any industry?
a. Favorable land location
b. Amount of capital
c. Minimum production cost
d. All of the above
Ans. (c)
6. Which of the following point is correctly define the
importance of industry in terms of its
location?
a. Peoples having demand for goods manufactured in
particular industry as well as having
purchasing power.
b. Nearness of trading centers to the residential areas.
c. Where goods are sold at cheap rates
d. None of the above
Ans. (a)
7. Which of the following factors mainly attracts the high
concentration of industries in Western
Europe and Eastern-North America?
a. Availability of raw material in close vicinity
b. Highly developed transport system
c. Favorable government policies
d. Availability of plenty of water
e. Ans. (b)
8. Which of the following factor is mainly responsible for
the location of ‘Foot loose
Industries’?
a. Accessibility by road network
b. Close proximity to raw material producing area
c. Availability of cheap and skilled labor on large scale
d. None of the above
Ans. (a)
9. Which of the following is not an example of cottage
industry?
a. Making of jeweler of gold, silver and bronze by a jeweler
b. Furniture making by a carpenter at home
c. Crafts made up of bamboo
d. Watch making
Ans. (d)
10. Which of the following country is not associated with
earlier large scale industries?
a. China b.
North-Eastern USA
c. Europe d.
U.K.
Ans. (a)
11. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly?
INDUSTRIES RAW
MATERAL TAKEN FROM
a. Beverages industry
Agriculture
b. Woolen textile
Animals
c. Paper industry
Forests
d. Jeweler industry
Chemicals
Ans. (d)
12. Which of the following industry is regarded as basic
industry?
a. Consumer goods
b. Iron and steel
c. Chemical industry
d. Cotton textile
Ans. (b)
13. Leather industry possess the example of which of the
following industry?
a. Forest based industry
b. Chemical based industry
c. Animal based industry
d. Mineral based industry
Ans. (c)
14. What are the basic features of traditional large scale
industrial regions?
a. These are based on heavy engineering
b. located near coal-fields and engaged in metal smelting
c. High proportion of employment in manufacturing industry
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
15. Consider and evaluate the following statements and
choose correct option from given
options.
1. Traditional large scale industries are now known as
smokestack industries.
2. These are often located near coal-fields to fulfill
energy requirements.
Options-
a. Only 1 is correct
b. Both 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 correctly
explains the statement 1
c. Only 2 is correct
d. Both 1 and 2 is correct
e. Ans. (b)
16. Which of the following are the characteristics of
Agri-buisnessfarm?
a. Farms are mechanized and large in size
b. It is commercial farming on an industrial scale often
financed by business whose main
interest lie outside agriculture
c. Reliant on chemicals
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
17. Which of the following area has now considered as the
‘Rust bowl’ of U.S.A.?
a. Pittsburg b.
Cleveland
c. Appalachian region
d. Great Lake region Ans. (a)
18. Which of the following industry is losing importance in
the Ruhr region of
Germany for which it was known initially?
a. Opel car assembly plant
b. New chemical plants
c. Coal and steel
d. None of the above
Ans. (c)
19. In which of the following industry, white collar workers
make up a large share of
the total workforce.
a. Traditional iron and steel industry
b. High technology industry
c. Cotton textile industry
d. None of the above
Ans. (b)
20. Blue collar workersstands for-
a. Cultivators
b. Teachers & doctors
c. Factory workers
d. Laborers
Ans. (c)
21. Which of the following is not an identical mark of the
high tech industrial landscape?
a. Industrial waste and pollution
b. Neatly spaced
c. Modern dispersed office plant
d. White collar jobs outnumber the blue collar jobs
Ans.(a)
22. Which of the following possess the best example of
technologies?
a. Silicon valley near San Francisco
b. Silicon valley in Mexico
c. Silicon Forest near Seattle
d. Only (a) and (c) are correct
Ans. (d)
23. Which of the following country does not produce cotton
textile from imported cotton?
a. U.K. b.
North-Western Europe
c. Japan d. Sri
Lanka
Ans. (d)
24. Why cotton textile industries shifted from highly
developed countries to less developed
countries?
a. Due to production of good quality raw cotton in these
countries
b. Due to low labor cost in such countries
c. Due to good infrastructure
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
25. Match the column I to Column II and make the correct
pairs by using correct codes from the
given options;
COLUMN I COLUMN II
(Countries) (Steel producing centre)
I. U.S.A. 1.
Dusseldorf
II. Germany 2.
Great Lake
III. Russia
3.Sheffield
IV. U.K. 4. Ukrain
Codes-
I II
II IV
a. 2 1
4 3
b. 1 2
3 4
c. 3 1
2 4
d. 2 3
4 1
Ans. (a)
L-7 TERTIARYAND QUATERNARY ACTIVITIES
1. Which of the following is not an example of tertiary
activity ?
a. Teaching by teachers to the students
b. Washing and pressing of clothes by launderer
c. Recreation in cinema hall
d. Growing of crops by a farmer
Ans. (d)
2. In which of the following sector, most of the peoples
worked during the initial stages of
economic development?
a. Primary sector
b. Secondary sector
c. Tertiary sector
d. Both (a) and (b) are correct
Ans. (a)
3. In developed economy or country, where majority of
workers get employment?
a. Primary sector
b. Secondary sector
c. Tertiary sector
d. Quaternary sector
Ans. (c)
4. How the output measured in tertiary activities?
a. In terms of volume of goods
b. In terms of total value of goods
c. In terms of wages and salaries
d. All of the above
Ans. (c)
5. Which of the following is depicting the main difference
between secondary activities and
tertiary activities?
a. Relies more heavily on specialized skills, experience and
knowledge of the workers
.
b. Relies on production technique, machinery and factory
processes
c. directly involve in the processing of physical raw
material
d. No theoretical knowledge and practical training
required
Ans. (a)
6. Which of the following activity is not an example of
tertiary activity?
a. Travel by bus
b. Send letters
c. Digging land for extracting minerals d. Services of doctors for treatment
Ans. (c)
7. Which of the following facility we found in urban
marketing centers?
a. Provide many ordinary goods and services as well as
specialized goods and services
b. Markets for labor, housing, semi or finished products
c. Professionals like teachers, lawyers, consultants etc.
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
8. Which of the following is not an example of non-store
retail trading?
a. Street peddling
b. Fixed establishment
c. Automatic vending machine d. mail order
Ans. (b)
9. Which of the following is a chief feature of wholesale
trading
a. It constitutes bulk business through numerous
intermediary and supply houses
b. wholesaler often extend credit to retail stores
c. Most retail stores procure supplies from an intermediary
source
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
10. Which of the following is used to measure transport
distance?
.
a. Km. b. Time
c. Cost d. All
of the above
Ans. (d)
11. Which of the following is the major factor that affect
the demand for transport?
a. Size of population
b. Pattern of trade between cities, towns and industrial
centers
c. Type of climate
d. Length of the route
Ans. (a)
12. Consider and evaluate the following statements and
choose correct option from the given
options
I. Very large volumes of mail continue to be handled by post
offices all over the world
II. All forms are not fully disassociated because of the
cheapness of the older system
Options-
a. Only 1 is true
b. Only 2 is true
c. Both 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 correctly explains
the statement 1
d. Both 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 does not explain
the statement 1 correctly
Ans. (c)
13. Which of the following revolutionized the global
communication system?
a. Newspapers b.
Mobile telephony
c. Internet d.
Mass media Ans. (c)
14. Which of the following service will be considered as
high ordered service among all?
a. Accountants b.
Launderers
c. Grocery shops
d. Plumbers
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following service is not related to mental
labor?
.
a. Services of advocate
b. Medical check-up of patients by Physician
c. Playing music by musician
d. Fittings of water taps by a plumber
Ans. (d)
16. Which of the following services are regulated and
supervised by governments or
Companies?
a. Making and maintaining highways and bridges
b. Maintaining fire fighting departments
c. Marketing of transport, telecommunication, energy and
water supply services.
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
17. Which of the following is an example of unorganized
services?
a. Tiffin service (dabbawala) in Mumbai
b. Multiplexes and restaurants
c. Law and management
d. Fire fighting departments
Ans. (a)
18. Which of the following is considered as single largest
tertiary activity in the world?
a. Trade and commerce
b. Tourism
c. Communication
d. Transport
Ans. (b)
19. Which of the following industries depend upon ‘Tourism’
for their growth?
a. Infrastructure industries
b. Retail trading
c. Craft industries
d. All of the above
.
Ans. (d)
20. Which of the following is the most popular tourist
region of the world?
a. Mountainous areas in Kashmir
b. Nile Valley of Africa
c. Warmer places around the Mediterranean coast
d. Colder areas near Mongolia
Ans. (c)
21. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
option for the same from the given
options-
I. Improvements in the standard of living and increased
leisure time, permits many more
people to go on holidays for leisure.
II. The opening up of tourist areas has been aided by
improvement in transport facilities.
Options-
a. Both statements I and II are correct and also
complimentary to each other
b. Both statements I and II are correct but they are not
related to each other
c. Only statement II is correct
d. Both the statements I and II are invalid
Ans. (a)
22. Which of the
following factor is responsible for the popularity of Southern Europe and
Mediterranean land in terms of tourism?
a. Spectacular mountains
b. Favorable climate
c. Their bright history
d. Culture and art
Ans. (b)
23. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
PLACES TOURISM ATTRACTIONS
a. Goa Heritage
homes
b. Thailand
Business tourism
c. Karnataka
Medicare
d. Singapore
Medical tourism
Ans. (b)
.
24. On which of the following Quaternary activities center
around ?
a. Production and collection of goods and information
b. Supply of good quality of raw material
c. Research and development
d. All of the above
Ans. (C)
25. Which of the following services are the examples of
Quinary services?
a. Peoples involved in Research and development
b. The highest level of decision makers or policy makers
c. Peoples involved in tourism and allied industries
d. Production and collection of information
Ans. (b)
26. Which of the following are considered as knowledge
oriented industry?
a. Tertiary activities
b. Quaternary activities
c. Quinary and tertiary activities
d. Quinary and secondary activities
Ans. (b)
27. Which of the following factor is responsible for the
coming of outsourcing in different
countries ?
a. Cheap and skilled labour
b. Favourable working process
c. Developed means of transport
d. All of the above
28. Which of the following is not an example of Knowledge
Processing Outsourcing (KPO) ?
a. E- Learning b.
intellectual property
c. Collection of information
d. legal profession
.
Ans. (c)
29. Which of the following is the main aim of outsourcing?
a. To improve efficiency
b. To reduce cost
c. To produce new jobs
d. Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
30. Which of the following feature is depicted by ‘Digital
Divide’?
a. providing ICT access and benefits to its citizens by a
country
b. Uneven distribution of opportunities emerging from the
information and technology across the
globe
c. Distribution of knowledge based industries
d. All of the above
Ans. (b)
.
L-8 TRANSPORT AND COMMUNICATION
1. How the human being is depend upon transport and
communication ?
a. For the high living standard and quality of life
b. For exchange and trade of commodities
c. For linking producing centres to consumer centres
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
2. Which of the following lines defines well the term
‘Transport’ ?
a. It is the facility to transport peoples from one place to
another place
b. It is the facility to transport finished products from
the producing centres to the markets
c. It is the facility to transport goods and peoples from
one place to another place
d. None of the above
Ans. (c)
3. Transport and communication may be categorised as-
a. Service industry
b. Secondary activities
c.Unorganised industry
d. Quaternary services
Ans. (a)
4. Which of the following mean of transportation is not
suitable to carry peoples from one
place to another place ?
a. Railways b.
Pipelines
c. Aeroplane d.
Ropeway
Ans. (b)
5. The significance of a mode of transport depends on-
a. The type of goods and services to be transported
b. Cost of transport and the mode available
c. The number of passengers transported
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
6. Make the correct pairs from the following and choose the
correct option from the given
codes .
.
MODE OF TRANSPORT SIGNIFICANCE
I Air Transport
International movement of goods is handled
II Rail Transport
Cheaper and faster over short distances and for door to door
services
III Ocean Freighters
Most suited for large volumes of bulky material over long
distances within a
country
IV Road Transport
High value, light and perishable goods are best moved.
CODES-
I II
III IV
a. 3
4 2 1
b. 1
2 3 4
c. 4
3 2 1
d. 3
2 1 4
Ans. (a)
7. The first public railway line was opened in 1825 in
northern England between which of the
following places ?
a. Between Stockton and Derlington
b. Between Stockton and Birmingham
c. Between Derlington and Dortmund
d. Between Derlington and Birmingham
Ans. (a)
8. Due to the invention of which of the following, road
transport revolutionised in terms of its
quality and vehicles plying over them ?
a. Steam engine b.
Electric engine
c. Internal combustion engine d. All of the above
Ans. (c)
.
9. In which of the following countries overland transport
still takes place by human porters or
carts drawn or pushed by humans ?
a. China and Malaysia
b. India and USA
c. China and India
d. China and Japan
Ans. (c)
10.In Which of the following continent highest road density
and highest number of vehicles are
registered ?
a. Western Europe
b. Africa
c. Australia d.
Northern America
Ans. (d)
11. Which of the following highway links Edmonton in Canada
to Anchorage in
Alaska ?
a.Alaskan
Highway b. Trans Canadian Highway
c. Pan American Highway
d. None of the above
Ans. (a)
12. Which of the following reason is responsible for the
less importance of roadways as
compared to railways ?
a. Vast industrial regions
b. Vast geographical area
c. Dense population
d. Less numbers of highways and low quality of roads
Ans. (b)
13. Which of the following is considered as the hub for a
dense highway network developed in
the idustrialised region to the west of Urals in Russia ?
a. Moscow b.
Vladivostok
c. Ural d.
Berkhoyansk
Ans. (a)
.
14. Which of the following is the longest highway of India ?
a. National Highway No. 4
b. National Highway No. 7
c. National Highway No. 9
d. National Highway No. 15
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following is the chief feature of Border
Roads ?
a. Integrate people in remote areas with major cities.
b. Provide defence
c. Almost all countries have such roads to transport goods
to border villages and military camps.
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
16. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly
REGIONS FEATURES
a. Europe Densest
railway network of the world
b. Japan Daily
passenger trains
c. Trans Siberian Railway
Connect London to Paris
d. Moscow An
important headquarter of railway
Ans. (c)
17. Which of the following continent has one of the most
extensive rail networks?
a. North America
b. Europe
c. South America
d. Asia
Ans. (a)
18. In which of the following regions of South America, the
dense rail network is found?
a. Pampas of Argentina
b. Coffee growing region of Brazil
.
c. Mining areas of Chile
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
19. Which of the following reasons are responsible for the
construction of Trans-Continental
Railways?
a. Due to economic and political reasons
b. Due to economic and geographical reasons
c. To encourage harmony and brotherhood among different
countries
d. Due to geographical and political regions
Ans. (a)
20. Which of the following is the longest and important
railway in the world?
a. Trans-Canadian Railway
b. Trans-Siberian Railway
c. The Union and Pacific Railway
d. The Orient Express
Ans. (b)
21. Which of the following are the terminal stations
connecting the Union and Pacific Railway?
a. New York and Cleveland
b. San Francisco and Chicago
c. New York and San Francisco
d. New York and Chicago
Ans. (c)
22. Which of the following terminal stations connect
Trans-Canadian Railway?
a. Halifax and Vancouver
b. New York and San Francisco
.
c. Halifax and Montreal
d. Callegory and Vancouver
Ans. (a)
23. The journey time from London to Istanbul has reduced a
lot as compared to sea route due to
which of the following railway line?
a. Trans-Siberian Railway
b. Orient Express
c. The Union and Pacific Railway
d. None of the above
Ans. (b)
24. Due to which of the following reason, water transport is
more advantageous?
a. It is much cheaper because the friction of water is far
less than that of land
b. It does not require route construction
c. The oceans are linked with each other and are negotiable
with ships of various sizes
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
25. The busiest sea route also known as the ‘Big Trunk
Route” is which among the following?
a. The Mediterranean-Indian Ocean sea route
b. The North Atlantic sea route
c. The Cape of Good Hope sea route
d. The South Atlantic sea route
Ans. (b)
26. Which of the following factor is responsible for the low
traffic on the south Atlantic sea route
as compared to the South Atlantic Ocean sea route?
a. Low population and limited development in South America
and Africa
b. Production of same commodities and availability of same
resources as well in South
America and Africa
c. Low level of technology
d. Both (a) and (b)
.
Ans. (d)
27. Which of the following sea route serves more countries
and people than any other route?
a. The Mediterranean-Indian Ocean sea route
b. The Northern Atlantic sea route
c. The North Pacific sea route
d. The South Pacific sea route
Ans. (a)
28. Which of the following is an important port located on
the South Pacific sea route?
a. Singapore b.
Honolulu
c. Hong Kong d.
Shanghai
Ans. (b)
29. Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct
option with the help of given
Codes
COLUMN I COLUMN II
I Suez Canal Russia
II Panama Canal
Dusseldorf Port
III Rhine waterway
United States of America
IV Volga waterway
A sea level canal without locks
CODES-
I II
III IV
a. 1 2
3 4
b. 3 2
1 4
c. 4 3
2 1
d 4 2
1 3
Ans. (c)
.
30. Which of the following transport system is only medium
to reach inaccessible areas?
a. Road transport
b. Rail transport
c. water transport
d. Air transport
Ans. (d)
31. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
answer from the given options.
1. In the Himalayan region, the routes are often obstructed
due to landslides, avalanches, or
Heavy snowfall.
2. Air travel is the only alternative to reach such places.
Options-
a. Only statement 1 is correct
b. Only statement 2
is correct
c. Both 1 and 2 are correct
d. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
Ans. (c)
32. Which of the following region used most of the airways
of the world?
a. United States of America b. Western Europe
c. Asian region of Russia
d. South-East Asia
Ans. (a)
33. Which of the following regions lack air services?
a. Africa b.
Asiatic part of Russia
c. South America
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
34. Which of the following is important in terms of rural
connectivity due to satellite
Communication?
a. Internet b.
Cell phone
c. telephone d.
Telegraph
Ans. (b)
.
35. Which of the following medium of communication is still
used mainly?
a. Telephone b.
Mobiles
c. Sending letters
d. Telegraph
Ans. (a)
36. In which of the following country, most of the internet
users are found?
a. United States of America b. Great Britain
c. Germany d. All
of the above
Ans. (d)
37. Which of the satellite launched recently successfully by
ISRO and given a new way in space
technology in India ?
a. Aryabhatta 2 b.
Chandrayan 1
c. Chandrayan 2 d.
Bhaskara 1
Ans. (c)
38. Which of the following mean of transport is helpful
during natural calamities?
a. Air transport
b. Road transport
c. Rope way d.
Railway
Ans. (a)
.
L-9 THE INTERNATIONAL TRADE
1. Which of the following point clearly depict the meaning
of Trade?
a. Exchange of commodities
b. Voluntary exchange of commodities and services
c. Commutation of commodities and services
d. Forceful job done by traders imposed by government
Ans. (b)
2. Which of the following factor is responsible for the
establishment of trade relations
among the different nations?
a. For the commodities those they cannot produce by
themselves
b. For the commodities those they can buy comparatively at
cheaper rates
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct
d. Both (a) and (b) are incorrect
Ans. (c)
3. Barter system is still alive in which of the following
fair in India?
a. Jonbeel Fair
b. Kumbha fair
c.Pushkar fair d.
Nauchandi Fair
Ans. (a)
4. Which of the following is an example of modern metal
currency?
a. Silver coin b.
Obisidian
c. Gold coin d.
Coin of 10
Ans. (d)
5. Silk route, that is the primitive example of long route
connect which of the following
Countries?
a. China and Italy
b. China and Rome
b. China and Central Asia
d. China and Greece
Ans. (b)
5. Which of the following factor was responsible for
flourishing trade between Europe and
Asia
In 12 and 13
Century?
a. Disintegration of Roman empire
b. Development of large navigational ships
.
c. Favourable climate
d. Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
7. Which of the following trade came into existence in 15
Century AD with the beginning of
European imperialism?
a. Slave Trade b.
Silk trade
c. Trade of raw material only d. Trade of finished products
Ans. (a)
8. On which of the following factors international trade
depend?
a. Variation in human resource
b. Specialisation in production
c. Availability of mineral resources
d. All of the above
Ans. (b)
9. Which of the following factor is most required for
participating in international trade by a
nation?
a. Efficient transport and communication system
b. Production of various commodities
c. Well developed network of industries
d. Educated human resources
Ans. (a)
10. Which of the following factor creates diversity among
the national resources?
a. Physical configuration
b. Relief and soil
c. Variations found in climate
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
.
11. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly?
COUNTRY PRODUCED
a. China
Porcelain and Brocade
b. Iran Software
technology
c. Northern America
Leather work
d. Indonesia Batik
clothes
Ans. (b)
12. Consider and evaluate the following statements and
choose the correct answer with the
help of given options.
I. Densely populated countries have large volume of internal
trade but little external trade
II. Most of the agricultural and industrial production of
these countries consumed in the local
Market due to
large size of population.
Options-
a. Only statement II is correct
b. Both the statements I and II are correct but statement II
does not explain statement I
correctly
c. Both the statements are true and statement II correctly
explains statement I
d. Both the statements are incorrect
Ans. (c)
13. Which of the following is the chief characteristics of
industrialised nation in terms of
trade?
a. They export mainly machinery and finished products
b. They exchanged agro products for manufactured goods from
the agriculturally important
countries
c. They import food grains and other raw materials
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
14. Which of the following commodity was not traded for a
long distance due to inefficient
mode of transport during ancient time?
a. Gems b. Silk
c. Grains d.
Spices
Ans. (c)
.
15. Which of the following point correctly depict the
‘volume of trade’?
a. The total value of the goods and services traded
b. The total tonnage of traded commodities
c. It is the form of values of services that are traded
d. None of the above
Ans.(a)
16. Which of the following changes are reflecting in the
pattern of international trade?
a. Contribution of Europe is decreasing
b. Contribution of Asian countries is increasing
c. Australia is emerging as a pioneer continent in terms of
international trade
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
17. Which of the following statement is true in reference of
trade balance?
a. If import value exceeds export value than trade balance
of a country is negative or
unfavourable
b. If export value is comparatively more than import value
than countries balance of trade
will be observed as favourable or positive
c. Negative balance
of trade would ultimately lead to exhaustion of its financial reserves
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
18. Which of the following country has lost the status of
‘Most favoured nation’ by India
Recently?
a. Pakistan b.
China
c.Great Britain
d. United States of America
Ans. (a)
19. Which of the following point clearly explains the status
of ‘Free trade’?
a. Bringing down trade barriers like tariffs
.
b. Trade liberalisation allows goods and services from
everywhere to compete with domestic
products and services
c. Let free trade
to be limited to developed countries only
d. Only (a) and
(b)
Ans. (d)
20. To fulfil
which of the following aim, the General Agreement on Trade and Tariff was
transformed in to World
Trade Organisation (WTO)?
a. For the promotion of free and fair trade amongst nation
b. To increase more trade and commerce for the developed
countries
c. To create competitive feelings amongst developed and
developing countries
d. All of the above
Ans. (a)
21. In which of the following year the General Agreement on
Trade and Tariff was transformed
in WTO?
a. June 1995 b.
January 1995
c. January 1996
d. December 1995
Ans. (b)
22. Which of the following issue is concerned with World
Trade Organisation (WTO)?
a. Sets the rules for global trading and resolves disputes
between its member nation
b. It covers trade in services such as telecommunication and
services
c. It also covers trade in other issues such as intellectual
rights
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
23. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
option from the given options
I. The WTO however been criticised and opposed by those who
are worried about the effects of
Free trade and
economic globalisation
.
II. Free trade does not make ordinary people’s lives more
prosperous
Options-
a. Only statement I is correct
b. Both the statements are true and statement II correctly
present the reason for statement I
c. Only Statement II is correct
d. Both the statements I and II are incorrect
Ans. (b)
24. Which of the
following aim encouraged the Regional Trade Blocs to came in to existence?
a. To encourage trade between the countries with
geographical proximity, similarity and
complementarities in trading items
b. To curb restrictions on trade of the developing world
c. To speed up intra regional trade
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
25. Consider the following and choose the correct answer
with the help of given odes-
REGIONAL BLOCS
HEADQUARTERS
I. ASEAN 1. Minsk,
Belarus
II. C.I.S. 2.
Brussels, Belgium
III. E. U. (European Union)
3. Jakarta, Indonesia
IV. OPEC 4.
Vienna
Codes-
I II
III IV
a. 1 2
3 4
b. 4 3
2 1
c. 3 2
1 4
d. 1 4
3 2
Ans. (c)
26. Which of the following criterion is observed to judged
the importance of a port?
.
a. The size of cargo and the number of ships handled
b. The size of port and its form
c. Maintenance and facilities of port
d. All of the above
Ans. (a)
27. Consider the following and choose the correct answer
with the help of given options.
PORT UTILITY
I. Industrial Ports
1. Ports of strategic importance
II. Commercial Ports
2. Located away from the sea coast
III. Comprehensive Ports
3. Handle manufactured good
IV. Inland Ports 4.
Handle bulk and general cargo in large volume
V. Naval Ports 5.
Specialise in bulk cargo
VI. Packet Station
6. Transportation of passengers and mail across
water bodies
covering short distances
Codes-
I II
III IV V VI
a. 1 2
3 4 5 6
b. 5 3
4 2 1 6
c. 6 4
3 2 1 5
d. 4 5
3 2 1 6
Ans. (b)
28. Which of the following port is main entrecote port for
Asia?
a. Singapore b.
Colombo
c. Mumbai d.
Colon
Ans. (a)
29. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly?
COUNTRY’S NAME
OIL PORT
a. Venezuela
Maracaibo
.
b. Tunisia
Esskhira
c. Lebonan
Tripoli
d. India
Vishakhapatnam
Ans. (d)
30. Which of the following posses a good example of naval
port?
a. English Channel
b. Karwar
c. Roterdom d.
Honolulu
Ans. (b)
.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
CLASS-XII GEOGRAPHY
L-1 POPULATION
DISTRIBUTION, DENSITY, GROWTH AND COMPOSITION
1. Consider and evaluate the following statements and choose
the correct answer from the
given options.
I India’s Population is larger than the total population of
North America, South America and
Australia put
together.
II Such a large population invariably puts pressure on its
limited resources and is also
responsible for many socio-economic problems in the country.
Options-
a. Both the statements are correct
b. Both the statements are correct and statement II gives
correct logic for statement I
c. Both the statements are correct but not related with each
other
d. Both the statements are incorrect Ans.
(b)
2. Which of the following states are having highest
population in India?
a. Bihar b. West
Bengal
c .Odisha d.
Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (d)
3. Which of the following options present the correct
chronological order of states
according to their population?
a. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal
b. Bihar, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra
c. Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Maharashtra
d. Bihar, West Bengal, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh Ans.
(a)
4. Which of the following factors mainly determine the
pattern of population distribution?
a. Physical setting
b. Availability of water
b. Climate d. All
of the above
Ans. (d)
.
5. Consider the following statements and explain the cause
and effect relationship between
these two by choosing correct answer from the given options
I. The areas which were previously very thinly populated
have now become the regions of
Medium to high
concentration of population
II. Development of irrigation, availability of minerals and
energy resources and the
development of network of transport is mainly responsible
for it
Options-
a. Only statement I is true
b. Only statement II is true
c. Both the statements are correct and the statement II
correctly explains the statement I
d. Above both the statements are incorrect
Ans. (c)
6. Which of the following regions always remain the areas of
high concentration of
Population?
a. North-western state
b. River plains and coastal region
c. Low lying areas of Himalayas
d. Hilly regions having tourism potential
Ans. (b)
7. Which of the following factor is responsible for the
rural-urban migration in large number
In Delhi, Mumbai,
Kolkata, Bengaluru, Pune, Ahmedabad, Chennai and Jaipur?
a. Availability of good quality of water
b. Availability of well reputed college and universities
c. Industrial development and urbanization
d. Bright history
Ans. (c)
8. Consider the
following statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
I. The uses of natural resources like land and water in the
river plains and coastal areas of India
have shown the sign of degradation
II. The concentration
of population remains high because of an early history of human
settlement and development of transport network.
.
a. Only statement I is correct
b. Both the statements I and II are correct
c. Only statement II is correct
d. Both the statements are incorrect
Ans. (b)
9. Due to which of the following factors, it is necessary to
know about the population density
of a place?
a. It gives us better understanding of spatial distribution
of population in reference to land.
b. It gives an idea of available resources in reference of
needs of population
c. It gives an understanding about the distribution of land
per person
d. It gives total number of persons
Ans. (a)
10. According to the census 2011, the population density of
India is---------------------.
a. 388 persons/ km2
b. 398 persons/km2
c. 382 persons/km2
d. 392 persons/ km2
Ans. (c)
11. Which of the following options present correct
chronological order of states in terms of
Population
density?
a. Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh
b. West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala
c. Bihar, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala
d. Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal
Ans. (a)
12. In which of the following states, highest density of
population is found?
a. Meghalaya
b. Nagaland
c. Assam
.
d. Mizoram
Ans. (c)
13. In which of the following Union Territories, density of
population is low?
a. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
b. Puduchery
c. Lakshdweep
d. Andaman and Nicobar Island
14. Which of the following is the induced factor of
population growth?
a. Migration b.
Crude birth rate
c. Death rate d.
All of the above
15. Consider the following and choose the correct answer
with the help of given codes-
STAGES OF POPULATION GROWTH
FEATURES
I Period between 1901 to 1921 1. Period of stagnant growth
II Period between 1921 to 1951 2. Phase of slow growth or
stagnant
growth of
Population
III 1951-1981 3.
High but decreasing growth rate
of population
IV After 1981 till present 4. Period of population explosion
Codes- I II
III IV
a. 1 2
3 4
b. 2 1
4 3
c. 4 3
2 1
d. 2 1
3 4
Ans. (b)
16. Consider the following statements, establish the cause
and effect relationship and choose the
correct answer from the given options
.
I. In the post 1981, the growth rate of country’s population
though remained high, has
started slowing down gradually.
II. A downward trend of crude birth rate is held responsible
for such a population growth.
Options-
a. Only statement I is true
b. Only statement II is true
c. Both the statements are true and statement II presents
the valid cause for statement I
d. Both the statement are irrelevant
Ans. (c)
17. Which of the following features is not related with the
phase IV of population growth in
India?
a. Increase in age at marriage
b. Increment in standard of living
c. Improvement in women’s education
d. Improvement in income
Ans. (d)
18. Which of the following pair is not matched correctly?
a. Kerala - Lowest population growth
b. Migration
- Induced population growth
c. Andaman & Nicobar
- Highest population density
among all
the union
territories
d. Phase IV of population growth -
Improvement in women’s education
Ans. (c)
19. Consider the following and choose correct answer with
the help of given codes-
AREAS CAUSES OF
POPULATION GROWTH
I Rajasthan 1. Availability of fertile land and soil
II Jharkhand
2.Development of transport network
III Peninsular States
3. Development of irrigation
.
IV Northern Plains
4. Development of minerals and energy resources
Codes-
I II
III IV
a. 3
4 2 1
b. 1
2 3 4
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3
4 1 2
Ans. (a)
20. According to census 2011, what percent of total
population is living in rural areas?
a.68.8% b. 65.8% c. &2.8%
d. 78.8%
21. In which of the following states, maximum concentration
of population is found?
a. Maharashtra and Sikkim
b. Bihar and Sikkim
c. Maharashtra and Bihar
d. Sikkim and Goa
Ans. (b)
22. In which of the following union territories, maximum
concentration of rural population
found?
a. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
b. Daman and Diu
c. Puducherry
d. Lakshadweep
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following factors are responsible for the
rapid growth of population in urban
Areas?
a. Economic development
b. Improvement in health and health related facilities
c. Government incentives
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
.
24. In which of the following areas level of urbanization is
slow?
a. Telangana
b. nonirrigated areas of western states
c. Flood prone areas of Peninsular India
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
25. 22 languages are
recognized as scheduled language in India. Which of the following
Languages are
mostly spoken among the scheduled languages?
a. Hindi b. Urdu
c. Sanskrit d. Kannad
Ans. (a)
26. Which of the following languages are least spoken in
India?
a. Kashmiri and Urdu
b. Kashmiri and Sanskrit
c. Urdu and Sanskrit
d. Sanskrit and Kannad
Ans. (b)
27. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly?
LANGUAGE FAMILY BRANCH/CATEGORY
a. Austric - Maan- Khmer
b. Chinese-Tibetan
- Northern Assam
c. Indian European
- Dardi
d. Dravidian - Munda
Ans. (a)
28. Which of the following is the smallest religious group
of India?
a. Jain and Muslim
b. Buddhist and Christian
c. Jain and Buddhist
d. Jain and Christian Ans. (c)
29. Consider the following and choose the correct answer
from the given options-
.
I. Work participation rate tend to be higher in the areas of
lower levels of economic
development.
II. Number of manual workers are needed to perform the subsistence
or near subsistence
economic activities
Options-
a. Only statement I is correct
b. Both the statements are correct and statement II
correctly explains statement I
c. Only statement II is correct
d. Both the statements are incorrect Ans. (b)
30. Which of the following persons may be put in to the
category of main workers?
a. A person who works for at least 200 days in a year
b. A person who works for 283 days in a year
c. A person who works for at least 183 days in a year
d. A person who works less than 183 days in a year
Ans. (c)
31. Which of the following point is correct regarding the
occupational composition of India?
a. Occupational composition of India depicts the major
proportion of workforce indulge in
primary sector as compared to secondary and tertiary
sectors.
b. Numbers of male workers are greater than female workers
in all the three sectors
c. Numbers of farmers are more in the states like Himachal
Pradesh and Nagaland
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
32. “Beti bachao beti padhao” social mission launched by
Indian government is inspired by
which of the following thought?
a. According to UNDP, if all the genders are not included in
the agenda of development,
such
Development is vanished.
b. Discrimination based on gender is crime towards humanity.
c. It is necessary to all to get equal opportunities in
education, employment, political
representation and equal wages for same work and leading a
respectful life.
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
.
33. Which of the following factors control the concentration
of rural population?
a. Relative quantity of urbanization on both the levels of
interstate and intra state.
b. Extent of rural-urban migration
c. Level of basic amenities available in villages
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
34. Which of the following states have the highest
concentration of urban population?
a. Goa and Maharashtra
b. Maharashtra and Gujarat
c. Goa and Gujarat
d. Maharashtra and Karnataka
Ans. (a)
35. In the year 2015, a policy was formulated for the
adolescents to give them proper
guidance and the better development of their talent
a. Skill development and entrepreneurship
b. Universalisation of education
c. Rejuvenation of schools
d. None of the above
.
L-2 MIGRATION- TYPES, CAUSES AND CONSEQUENCES
1. Consider the following, make correct pairs and choose the
correct answer with the help
of given codes
CENSUS YEAR MEANING
OF MIGRATION
I. 1881 1.
Collection of data regarding place of birth i.e. village or town
and duration of
residence
II. 1961 2.
Additional information on place of last residence and duration of
stay at the place
of enumeration were incorporated
III. 1971 3.
Recording of data on the basis of place of birth
IV. 1981 4.
Information on reasons for migration were incorporated
Codes-
I II
III IV
a. 1 2
3 4
b. 4 3
2 1
c. 3 1
2 4
d. 3 2
1 4
Ans. (c)
2. On which of the following basis, data regarding migration
recorded in census of India?
a. Place of birth, if the place of birth is different from
the place of enumeration.
b. Place of residence, if the place of last residence is
different from the place of enumeration
c. On the basis of duration of residence
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
3. Due to which of the following factors, steady out flow of
India’s semi-skilled and skilled
labors took place in West Asia?
a. Development of construction activities
b. In the wake of oil boom
c. Due to liberalization
.
d. Increase in demand of heavy engineering
Ans. (b)
4 .Which of the
following factors was responsible for emigration after liberalization in the
90s
that make Indian Diaspora one of the most powerful diaspora
in the world?
a. Education and knowledge
b. Fall in the air fare due to liberalization
c. Oil boom in west Asia
d. None of the above
Ans. (a)
5. In which of the following streams of migration ,females
predominate in both intra-state
and
Inter-state
migration?
a. Urban to urban
b. Urban to rural
c. Rural to rural
d. Urban to urban
Ans. (c)
6. Men predominate in which of the following stream of
migration?
a. inter-state
migration in rural to urban stream
b. Intra-state migration in rural to urban stream
c. Inter-state migration in urban to urban stream
d. Intra- state migration in urban to urban stream
Ans. (a)
7. Arrange the
following states in their correct chronological order according to the
recipients of
In- migrants-
1. Gujarat
2. Maharashtra
3. Delhi
4. Haryana
a. 2, 3, 1, 4
b. 1, 2, 3, 4
c. 3, 1, 2, 4
d. 3, 2, 1, 4
Ans. (a)
8. Which of the
following states had the largest number of net out-migrants?
.
a. Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal
b. West Bengal and Bihar
c. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
d. Bihar and Assam
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following Urban Agglomeration receives the
higher number of in migrants?
a. Delhi b.
Greater Mumbai
c. Kolkata d.
Chennai
Ans. (b)
10. In which of the following states, migration of women
after marriage is not a tradition?
a. Manipur b.
Uttar Pradesh
c. Assam d.
Meghalaya
Ans. (d)
11. Consider the following statements, establish the cause
and effect relationship and choose the
correct answer from the given options-
I Development of slums in industrially developed states such
as Maharashtra, Gujarat,
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Delhi take place.
II Unregulated migration to the metropolitan cities of India
has caused overcrowding.
Options-
a. Only statement I is correctly
b. Only statement II is correct
c. Both I and II are correct and statement II correctly
explains the statement I.
d. Both are correct
but not inter related.
Ans. (c)
12. Which of the
following factors are responsible for the migration from the rural areas of
Eastern UP, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha towards the
states of Punjab, Haryana and
Western Uttar Pradesh?
a. Success of their green revolution strategy for
agricultural development.
b. Due to the industrial development of these states.
.
c. Better infrastructure of these states that provides vast
employment opportunities to these
migrants
d. None of the above
Ans. (a)
13. Which of the following statement is not relevant in
reference to migration?
a. The amount of remittance sent by the internal migrants
plays an important role in the growth
of economy of the source area.
b. Migration leads to the re-distribution of the population
within a country
c. Migration leads to intermixing of people from diverse
culture
d. Migration leads to good marriages.
Ans. (d)
14. Age and skill selective migration from the rural areas
have not adverse effect on which of the
following demographic attributes?
a. Serious imbalances in age and sex composition
b. Downfall recorded in working population
c. Whole burden of agricultural work has to bear old
population in rural areas
d. Only women remain in the place of origim Ans.
(a)
15. Which of the following is not an environmental
consequence of migration?
a. Acute problem of depletion of ground water
b. Male selective out migration leaving their wives behind
puts extra physical as well mental
pressure on the women.
c .Unplanned growth of urban settlement and formation of
slums shanty colonies
d .Management of solid wastes
16. Which of the following factors of migration is not
related to other mention causes (pick odd
One out)?
a. Great pressure on agricultural land due to over
population
b. Availability of
regular work
.
c. Natural calamities and disasters
d. Local disputes
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following is not a PULL factor of
migration?
a. Better health facilities
b. Sources of recreation
c. Lack of infrastructural facilities
d. Better opportunities of education
Ans. (c)
18. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly?
TYPES OF CONSEQUENCES
EFFECTS OF MIGRATION
a. Demographic consequences - Serious imbalances in age and
sex composition
b. Social consequences
- Social vacuum and sense of dejection
c. Economic consequences - Drug abuse
d. Environmental consequences - Formation of slums shanty
colonies
Ans. (c)
19. Read and consider
the following paragraphs and choose the correct option from the given
options accordingly
“Subbulakshmi belongs to fisherman community from coast of
Tamil Nadu. The devastative
tsunami has swept away all the family members except her two
children. Till than she lives in a
slum of Chennai and growing her children. She works in
Chennai as a domestic servant and her
children go to school. However she miss her place but she
would not go back. She still afraid of
giant waves of Tsunami. Now she has to safeguard her
children”.
Which of the following cause is responsible for the
migration of Subbulakshmi from her village
to Chennai
a. Fear of natural disaster
b. Lack of employment opportunities in the village
c. Problem of upbringing and education of children
d. None of the above
Ans. (a)
20. Read and consider the following paragraph and choose the
correct answer of the question
that follows
.
“Prakash is the resident of a small town near Mumbai. He has
done graduation in science
from there. Now he is migrated to Mumbai for higher studies.
He is doing part time job along
with studies to run his livelihood. He likes Mumbai because
he thinks that he will get high
salary as well as opportunities to go abroad”.
Which of the following factors is responsible for the
willingly migration of Prakash to
Mumbai
a. Opportunities of higher education
b. High salary and better employment opportunities
c. Sources of recreation
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
21. Which of the following factors was responsible for first
wave of Indian Diaspora in
different parts of the world during colonial period?
a. Sending of contractual workers in different colonies to
work there in plantation agricultural
field
b. Sending of labors in imperial countries to work as
household worker for royal families
c. Sending of
contractual workers in the industries of imperial countries
d. All of the
above
Ans. (a)
.
L-3 HUMAN DEVELOPMENT
1. According to the Human Development Report of 1993, which
of the following conditions
correctly depicts the human development?
a. Progressive democratization and increasing empowerment of
people are seen as the
Minimum conditions for human development
b. Development must be woven around people not the people
around development
c. Development is freedom that belongs to modernization and
facilities
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
2. Which of the following factors play decisive role in the
allocation of the nature of human
Development?
a. Social discrimination
b. Terrorism
c. Level of empowerment
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
3. Which of the following group is most sufferer at the
distribution of the development
opportunities among different sections of our society?
a. Women population
b. Scheduled tribes
c .Landless agricultural laborer d. Poor farmers
Ans. (a)
4. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
answer with the help of given
codes.
I. Development is a mix bag of opportunities as well as
neglect and deprivations.
II. There are few areas like the metropolitan centers and
other developed enclaves that have
all the modern facilities available to a small section of
its population. At the other
extreme of it, there are large rural areas and the slums in
the urban areas that do not have
basic amenities like potable water, education and health
facilities.
Options-
a. Only statement I is correct
b. Only statement II is correct
c. Both the statements are correct, statement II correctly
explains the statement I
d. Both are correct but not related to each other
Ans. (c)
5. Which of the following inter related aspects of
development has direct bearings on
deteriorating human conditions?
a. Plight of women and scheduled castes
b. Environmental pollution
.
c. Low level of education
d. Individual security
Ans. (b)
6. Present development is held responsible for which of the
following bad effects?
a. Deterioration in quality of life and human development
b. Involving children in sexual activities
c. Fighting between different groups of people
d. Gender discrimination Ans. (a)
7. Consider and evaluate the following factors and problems
related to human development
and make the correct pairs with the help of given codes-
FACTORS PROBLEMS
I. Historical factors
1. Level of empowerment
II. Socio-cultural factors
2. Crime and terrorism
III. Social factors
3. Colonialism and imperialism
IV. Political factors
4. Abuse of human rights and social discrimination
Codes-
I II
III IV
a. 3 4
2 1
b. 1 2
3 4
c. 4 3
2 2
d. 3 4
1 2
Ans. (a)
8. According to
the data collected in 2011-12, In Which of the following states more than
30 %
population lives in below poverty line?
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Goa
c. Odisha d.
Gujarat
Ans. (c)
9 .Which of the
following factors is not important to measure healthy and long life?
a. Health and medical facilities for aged population
b. Availability of pre and post natal health care facilities
in order to reduce infant mortality
and post-delivery deaths among mothers
c. Adequate nutrition and safety of individual
.
d. Leading a luxorious life
Ans. (d)
10. In which of the following states, 10% population is
living below poverty line?
a. Odisha b.
Andhra Pradesh
c. Bihar d.
Rajasthan
Ans. (b)
11. According to the census 2011, in which of the only
following states is having
satisfactory
Sex ratio in the
age group of 0-6?
a. Haryana b. Delhi
c. Kerala d.
Punjab
Ans. (c)
12. Which of the following states are posing a disturbing
condition in case of child sex ratio
In the age group of
0-6 years?
a. Punjab and Haryana
b. Haryana and Delhi
c. Delhi and Punjab
d. Punjab and Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (a)
13. In the developed states of Punjab and Haryana, child sex
ratio is below 850 female
children per 1000 male children. Which of the following
factors are responsible for it?
a. Social attitude
b. Scientific methods of sex determination
c. Over development in these states
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
14. “Development is freedom” Freedom from hunger, poverty,
servitude, bondage,
ignorance, illiteracy etc. Which of the following factors is
not considered as fundamental to
freedom?
a. Access to knowledge about the society and environment
b. Availability of sufficient capital
c. Equitable distribution of resources
.
d. involving in criminal activities
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following states is having the lowest
literacy rate?
a. West Bengal
b. Bihar
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Rajasthan
Ans. (b)
16. Which of the following states is recorded the highest
literacy rate according to census
2011?
a. Mizoram b.
Karnataka
c. Kerala d.
Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)
17. Which of the following north-eastern states found
highest literacy rate?
a. Mizoram b.
Nagaland
c. Manipur d.
Tripura
Ans. (a)
18. The government of India with its flagship program Swachh
Bharat Mission (SBM)-
a. Construction of community toilet seats and public toilet
seats
b. Making provisions for the supply of clean energy fuel LPG
to all households in rural India
to reduce domestic pollution
c .100 percent
scientific management of municipal solid waste.
d . All of the
above
Ans. (d)
19. According to
census 2011, the total literacy in India is---------------------------.
a. 74.04 % b. 78.04
c. 64.04 d. 72.04
Ans. (a)
20. What is the
percentage of female literacy in India according to census 2011?
a. 68.46 % b. 53.3%
c. 65.46 % d. 62.46%
Ans. (c)
.
21. Among which of
the following sections of society very low percentage of literacy is not
found?
a. Among the scheduled tribes
b. Among females
c. Among agricultural laborer
d. Among the males of rural areas
Ans. (d)
22. Which of the following options shows the correct
chronological options of the given Indian
states in terms of their composite index?
a. Kerala, Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, Goa, Punjab
b. Kerala, Delhi, Punjab, Goa, Himachal Pradesh
c. Kerala, Delhi, Goa, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab
d. Kerala, Goa, Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following order correctly depicts the
states having low literacy rate /
a. Kerala, Mizoram, Tamil Nadu, Delhi, Goa
b. Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Assam, Uttar Pradesh
c. Bihar, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh
d. Kerala, Haryana, Punjab, Karnataka, Maharashtra
Ans. (b)
24. consider the following and choose the correct answer
with the help of given options-
I Kerala with the composite index value of 0.790 is placed
at the top.
II Kerala is able to record the highest value in the HDI
largely due to its impressive performance
in achieving near hundred per cent literacy
Options-
a. Both the statements are true
b. Only statement II is true
c. Both the statements are true and statement II correctly
explains the statement I
.
d. Both the statements are incorrect
Ans. (c)
25. The government
of India has made concerted efforts to institutionalize the balanced
development. These efforts are based on---------------.
a. Social distributive justice through planned development
b. To decrease social discrimination
c. To attain top rank in human development index
d. Gender equality
Ans. (a)
26. Which of the following factors that developed during
colonial period still affecting the
economy, polity and society of India?
a. Regional distortions
b. Social disparities
c. Social structure
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
27. Which of the following problems have not been created as
the ill effects of development?
a. Regional disparities
b. Environmental degradation
c. Displacement of people
d. Good governance
Ans. (d)
28. Which of the following major issues were raised in the
Human Development Report
published in 1993?
a. Participation and empowerment of peoples
b. Security of peoples
c. Progressive democratization
.
d. all of the above
Ans. (d)
29. Which of the following scholars first raised the
concerted issue regarding imbalances
between population and very limited availability of
resources?
a. Sir Robert Malthus
b. Schumakar
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Brundtland
Ans. (a)
30. ‘Small is
beautiful’ book based on judicious use of resources is written by----
a. Sir Robert Malthus
b. Hartshorne
c. Schumaker
d. Mahatma Gandhi
.
L-4 HUMAN SETTLEMENT
1. Through which of the following, functional relations
establish between rural and urban
Settlement?
a. Through the means of transport and communication
b. Through the supply of raw material
c. Through the exchange of finished products in rural areas
d. All of the above
Ans. (a)
2. Which of the following features is not related with rural
areas?
a. Rural people are less dynamic
b. Social relations among rural people are intimate
c. Way of life is complex and fast
d. Rural people get goods and services from urban areas in
return for food and raw
material.
Ans. (c)
3. Which of the following features is not associated with
urban areas?
a. Cities act as nodes of economic growth
b. Social relations are formal
c. Urban people are less mobile
d. Urban settlements depend on processing of raw materials,
manufacturing of
finished goods and a variety of services
Ans. (c)
4. Which of the following factors are not responsible for
the different kind of rural
settlements found in India?
a. Nature of terrain
b. Availability of water
c. Defense against thefts and robberies
d. Planning structure
Ans. (d)
5. Match the Column I ( Types of settlements) with Column II
(Areas) and make correct
pairs with the help of given codes
COLUMN I COLUMN
II
(TYPES OF SETTLEMENTS)
(AREAS)
I Clustered, agglomerated and nucleated 1. Chhattisgarh and lower valleys of
Himalayas
II Semi – clustered
or fragmented 2. Meghalaya Uttaranchal
and
.
Himachal
Pradesh
III Hamleted 3. Fertile alluvial plains
IV Dispersed or
isolated 4. Gujarat plain and parts
of
Rajasthan
CODES-
I II
III IV
a. 3 4
1 2
b. 1 2
3 4
c. 4 3
2 1
d. 3 4
2 1
Ans. (a)
6. Consider the following features and choose the correct
title after associating them.
I. More often such a pattern may also result from
segregation or fragmentation of large
compact village.
II. The land- owning and dominant community occupies the
central part of the main village
whereas people of lower strata of society and menial workers
settle on the outer flanks of
the village.
III. III They are found in Gujarat plains and some parts of
Rajasthan.
OPTIONS-
a. Helmeted Settlement
b. Semi-clustered or fragmented
c .Clustered Settlements
d .Isolated
Settlements
Ans. (b)
7. Sometimes settlement is fragmented to several units
physically separated from each other
bearing a common name. Such kind of settlements are known
as-
a. Isolated settlements
.
b. Clustered settlements
c. Hamleted settlements
d. Semi-clustered settlements
e. Ans. (c)
8. Panna, Para, Palli, Nagla, Dhani etc. Are the names of
which of the following
settlements?
a. Hamleted settlements
b. Isolated settlements
c. Semi-clustered settlements
d. Clustered settlements
Ans. (a)
9 .Extreme
dispersion of dispersed settlement is often caused by which of the following
factors?
a. Extremely fragmented nature of terrain
b. Land resource base of habitable areas.
c. Nature of climate
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
10. Which of the following cities have developed in the form
of religious and cultural centers?
a. Delhi and Hyderabad
b. Patliputra (Patna) and Madurai
c. Chennai and Kolkata
d. Puducherry and Goa
Ans. (b)
11. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly?
CITIES BASIS OF DEVELOPMENT
a. Prayag (Allahabad)
- On religious and cultural basis
b. Lucknow - Based
on the remnants of ancient cities
c. Kolkata - On
cultural basis
d. Mumbai - In the
form of commercial port
Ans. (c)
12. Which of the following cities comes in the category of
modern city?
.
a. Surat b.
Jaipur
c. Madurai d.
Hyderabad
Ans. (a)
13. Which of the following possess a good example of Fort
town?
a. Delhi b.
Jaipur
c. Agra
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
14. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct
answer with the help of given
Codes-
COLUMN I (CITIES)
COLUMN II (TYPES OF CITIES)
I . Jamshedpur
1.Summer resort
II. Bhuvaneshwar 2.
Satellite town
III. Ghaziabad 3.
Industrial town
IV .Mussorie 4.
Commercial port
V .Goa 5.
Administrative town
CODES-
I II
III IV V
a. 1 2
3 4 5
b. 3 5
2 1 4
c. 5 4
3 2 1
d. 3 5
4 2 1
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following mainly is not an industrial city?
a. Bhilai b.
Durgapur
c. Chandigarh d.
Barauni
.
Ans. (c)
16. Which of the following is known as a satellite town of
Delhi?
a. Ghaziabad b.
Rohtak
c. Gurgaon d. All
of the above
Ans. (d)
17. Which of the following is basically not an
administrative city?
a. Dispur b.
Sindri
c. Bhuvaneshwar
d. Delhi
Ans. (b)
18. According to census 2011, which of the following
percentage depict the level of
urbanization in
India ?
a. 31.16 % b. 28 %
c.33.16 % d. 26
%
Ans. (a)
19. Which of the following factors play significant role in
the growth of population as well as
in the process of urbanization?
a. Enlargement of urban centers
b. Emergence of new towns
c. Most of the peoples are involved in the secondary
activities
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
20. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
FORM OF CITIES POPULATION SIZE
1. City - 1 Lakh
and more
2. Metropolitan city
- 10 Lakh to 50 Lakh
3. Urban agglomeration
- 55 to 60 Lakh
4. Mega city - More
than 50 Lakh
Ans. (c)
.
21. Which of the following urban agglomeration is the
largest agglomeration?
a. Greater Mumbai
b. Delhi
c. Chennai
d. Bengaluru
Ans. (a)
22. Which of the following options depicts the correct
chronological order of cities according
to the size of population?
a. Greater Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai, Bengaluru,
Hyderabad
b. Greater Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru, Delhi,
Hyderabad
c. Greater Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru
Hyderabad
d. Greater Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru,
Hyderabad
Ans. (c)
23. Match the column I with Column II and choose the correct
options with the help of given
Codes.
COLUMN I COLUMN
II
(CITIES)
(FUNCTIONAL SPECIFICATION)
I.
Ambala 1. Mining town
II. Mughal
Sarai 2. Transport town
III.
Ankaleshwar 3. Educational town
IV. Aligarh 4.Garrison town
V. Shimla 5. Commercial town
VI
.Saharanpur 6. Tourist town
CODES-
I II
III IV V VI
a. 1 2
3 4 5 6
b. 4 2
1 3 6 5
.
c. 6 5
4 3 2 1
d. 2 1
4 3 5 6
Ans. (b)
24. Which of the following statement is not true regarding
the ‘Smart City Mission’?
a. To promote cities that provide core infrastructure, a
clean and sustainable environment and
give a decent quality of life to its citizens
b. To apply smart solutions to infrastructure to
infrastructure and services in order to make them
better
c. Use of fewer resources, providing cheaper services and
focus on sustainable and inclusive
development.
D. Increase in employment
Ans. (d)
.
L-5 LAND RESOURCES AND AGRICULTURE
1. The land that cannot be brought under cultivation with
the available technology is called-
a. Area under permanent pasture and grazing land
b. Barren and waste land
c. Fallow land
d. Culturable
wasteland
Ans. (b)
2. When the secondary and tertiary sectors grow, then which
of the following category of
land-use increases-
a. Land put to non-agricultural uses
b. Culturable wasteland
c. Barren and wasteland
d. Fallow other than current fallow
Ans. (a)
3. The land that is left uncultivated for more than five years is called as-
a. Fallow other than current fallow
b. Current fallow
c. Culturable wasteland
d. None of the above
Ans. (c)
4. Which of the following department is responsible to
measure the geographical area of
administrative units in India?
a. Indian Space Research Organization
b. Survey of India
c. Planning commission of India
d. None of the above
Ans. (b)
5. Which of the following changes are not related to economy
that affect the land use?
a. Increasing size of economy with the time
b. Changes in the composition of the economy over time
c. Reduction in contribution of agricultural activities over
time
d. planning of government
Ans. (d)
6. Which of the following factors are responsible for the
increase in forest area?
.
a. Increase in the demarcated area
b. Due to actual forest cover
c. Due to afforestation
d. Due to forest concerned policy of government
Ans. (a)
7. Consider the following statement and choose the correct
answer with the help of given
options.
I. During 1950-51 to 2014-15, the trend of current fallow
fluctuates a great deal over
years
II. Variability of rainfall and cropping pattern is
responsible for this.
OPTIONS-
a. Only I is correct
b. Only II is correct
c. Both the statements are correct and statements II
correctly explains the cause for
statement I
d. Both are correct but not related to each other
Ans. (c)
8. Which of the following possess an example for Common
Property Resources?
a. Community forests
b. Pasturelands
c. Village water bodies
d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
9. Which of the
following factor is responsible for direct bearing of poverty in rural areas?
a. Lack of agricultural land
b. Low level of literacy
c. Lack of appropriate means of livelihood
d. Lack of employment opportunities
Ans. (a)
10. Which of the
following crops are associated with the onset of south-west monsoon?
.
a. Rabi crops b.
Kharif crops
c. Zayad crops d. None of the above
Ans. (b)
11. Which of the following crops are not associated with
Rabi crops?
a. Gram b. Wheat
c. Cotton d.
Mustard
Ans. (c)
12. ‘Barani’ is another of which of the following type of
agriculture?
a. Rain fed agriculture
b. Irrigated agriculture
c. Dry land agriculture
d. None of the above
Ans. (a)
13. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct
answer with the help of given
codes.
COLUMN I COLUMN
II
(TYPES OF AGRICULTURE)
(FEATURES)
I . Protective irrigation farming 1. Practice various measures of soil
moisture
conservation
and rain water harvesting.
II . Productive irrigation farming 2. Stress on growing various water intensive
crops.
III . Wet land farming
3. To protect the crops from adverse effects of soil
moisture
deficiency.
IV. Dry land farming
4. To provide sufficient soil moisture in the
cropping
season to achieve high productivity.
14. In India, dry land farming is limited to the areas
having rainfall less than------------------
centimeter.
a. 50 cm b. 80
cm
c. 75 cm d. 65 cm
Ans. (c)
.
15. The cultivation of which of the following crops is not
beneficial for the regions, those are
facing the problems of flood and soil erosion hazards?
a. Rice b.
Jute
c. Sugarcane d.
Ragi
Ans. (d)
16. Which of the following crops is not suitable for dry
land farming?
a. Ragi b.
Bajra
c. Jowar d.
Jute
17. Which of the following class of crops is more dominant
in all parts of the country (India)?
a. Food grains
b. Cash crops
c. Beverage crops
d. Fiber crops
Ans. (a)
18. India ranks third in terms of growing foodgrains. Which
of the following countries rank first
and second?
a. China and Great Britain
b. America and China
c. America and Sri Lanka
d. China and Bangladesh
Ans. (b)
19. Aus , Aman and Boro are the types of which of the
following crops ?
a. Wheat b. Maize
c. Rice d. Gram
Ans. (c)
20. In which of the following states, the entire land under
rice cultivation is irrigated?
a. Punjab b.
Kerala
c. West Bengal
d. Telangana
.
Ans. (a)
21. Which of the following factors is not responsible for
the higher productivity of rice in Punjab
and Haryana?
a. Genetically improved variety of seeds.
b. Relatively high usage of fertilizers and pesticides
c. Lower levels of susceptibility of the crop to pest due to
dry climatic conditions.
d. Availability of sufficient rainfall.
Ans. (d)
22. In which of the following regions, wheat is a rain fed
crop?
a. Malwa Plateau
b. Highlands of Himalayas
c. Indo-Gangetic Plain
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
23. Which of the following states are the leading producer
of rice?
a. Haryana b.
Bihar
c. West Bengal d.
Himachal Pradesh
24. Which of the following states are the leading producer
of Jowar, Bajra and Tur (Arhar)?
a. Karnataka b.
Maharashtra
c. Rajasthan d.
Gujarat
Ans. (b)
25. Which of the following crops is known as ‘Narma’ in
north-western parts of the country?
a. Wheat b. Jowar
c. American Cotton
d. Sugarcane
26. Which of the following states is leading in terms of the
production of jute?
.
a. Assam b. West
Bengal
c. Chhattisgarh d.
Maharashtra
Ans. (b)
27. Which of the following regions is the leading producer
of tea?
a. Brahmaputra valley of Assam
b. Sub-Himalayan region of West Bengal
c. Nilgiris and Cardamom hills of Western Ghats
d. Cooch Bihar
Ans. (a)
28. Arabica, Robusta and Liberica are the varieties of which
of the following crops?
a. Coffee b. Tea
c. Sugarcane d.
Cotton
Ans. (a)
29. After independence, the immediate goal of the government
was to increase food grains.
Which of the
following method was not adopted by the government to attain this goal?
a . Switching over from cash crops to food crops.
b . Intensification of cropping over already cultivated
land.
c . Increasing cultivated area by bringing cultivable and
fallow land under plough.
d . Introduction of high tech modern tools and equipment.
Ans. (d)
30. Which of the following development in the field of
agriculture is not related with the
expansion of irrigation ?
a . Use of high yielding varieties of seeds.
b .Use of chemical fertilizers
c . Use of pesticides and farm machinery.
.
d . Growing of maize on commercial scale.
Ans. (d)
31. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
answer with the help of given
Option
I. The resource intensive approach of modern expensive
agriculture has become unmanageable
for marginal and small farmers due to very meagre or no
saving to invest in agriculture.
II. Most of such farmers have resorted to availing credit
from various institutions and money
lenders but crop failures and low returns from agriculture
have forced them to fall in the trap
of indebtedness.
Options
a. Both the statements are true.
b. Only statement I is true.
c. Only statement II is true
d. Both the statements are wrong.
32. Which of the following problems are not related with the
‘Degradation of cultivable land’?
a. Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and
pesticides has led to their concentration in
toxic amounts in the soil profiles.
b. A large tract of agricultural land has lost its fertility
due to alkalinisation and salinization of
soils and waterlogging.
c. Soil erosion by water and wind which are often induced by
human activities
d. Work is not available throughout as agricultural
operations are not labor intensive.
.
L-6 WATER RESOURCES
1. India shares what percent of world’s water resources?
a. 4 % b. 2 % c. 2.4 %
d. 1 %
Ans. (a)
2. How much water is available from surface water and
replenish able ground water in
India?
a. 1879 cubic km
b. 1869 cubic km
c. 1889 cubic km
d. 1899 cubic km
Ans. (b)
3. The total utilizable water resources in the country is
only--------------cubic km.
a. 1123 b. 1122
c. 1132 d. 1125
Ans. (b)
4. Much of the annual water flow of which of the following
rivers has not been harnessed?
a. Godavari b.
Krishna
c. Kaveri d.
Brahmaputra
Ans. (d)
5. In which of the following states, the groundwater
utilization is very high?
a. Punjab b.
Maharashtra
c . Bihar d.
Gujarat
Ans. (a)
6. Which of the following groups of states utilize
groundwater the most?
a. Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Tripura
b. Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu
c. Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Kerala, Bihar
d. Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Tripura, Maharashtra
7. The lagoons of states like Kerala, Odisha and West Bengal
are not utilized to which of
the following purpose?
a. Fishing
b. Irrigating certain varieties of paddy crops
c. Irrigation of coconut
.
d. For drinking purpose in house hold
8. Which of the following sectors utilize most of the
surface and ground water?
a. Agriculture
b. For hydroelectricity
c . Industries
d. House hold
9. Which of the following areas of our country are deficient
in rainfall and are drought
prone?
a. North- eastern states
b. Deccan Plateau
c . Gangetic Plain
d. Brahmaputra valley
10. Which of the
following crops does not require much water to grow?
a. Rice b.
Sugarcane
c . Jute d.
Bajra
Ans. (d)
11. Which of the
following groups of states observed the successful strategy of Green
revolution of agricultural development?
a. Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh
b. Punjab, Gujarat and Rajasthan
c. Punjab, Western Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan
d. Punjab, Haryana
and Gujarat
Ans. (a)
12. What percent of net sown area in Punjab, Haryana and
Western Uttar Pradesh is under
irrigation?
a. 88 % b. 85 %
c. 89 % d. 81 %
Ans. (b)
13. Provision of irrigation makes
-----------------------possible.
a. Humidity b.
Agriculture
c. Multiple cropping
d. Green revolution
Ans. (c)
14. Consider the following and choose the correct answers
from the given options.
I. Over withdrawals of groundwater in Rajasthan and
Maharashtra increased fluoride
.
Concentration.
II. This practice has led to increase in concentration of
arsenic in parts of West Bengal and
Bihar.
Options-
a. Only statement I is correct
b. Only statement II is correct
c. Both I and II are correct
d. Both statements are wrong
Ans. (c)
15. What is the negative impact of intensive irrigation in
the states of Punjab, Haryana and
Western U.P.?
a. Increasing salinity in the soil
b. Increased soil erosion
c. Soil become alkaline
d. Decreasing of soil fertility
Ans. (a)
16. Consider and evaluate the following statements and
choose the correct answer from the given
options.
Options-
I. The availability of usable water is limiting day by day.
II. The available water resource is getting polluted due to
increase in population, industrial,
agricultural and domestic effluents.
a. Only statement II is correct
b. Both are correct. Statement II correctly explains
statement I
c. Both are correct but not related to each other
d. Both are wrong
.
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following are the most polluted rivers of
the country?
a. Ganga and Brahmaputra
b. Ganga and Godavari
c. Ganga and Yamuna
d. Yamuna and Brahmaputra
Ans. (b)
18. Which of the following is not a cause of water
pollution?
a. Micro- bacteria
b. Chemical wastes
c. Industrial wastes
d. Soil erosion
Ans. (d)
19. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct
answer with the help of given
Codes.
COLUMN I (RIVERS)
COLUMN II (POLLUTED PLACE)
I Yamuna 1.
Hyderabad
II Kali 2. Kanpur
and Varanasi
III Gomati 3.
Ahmedabad
IV Sabarmati 4.
Lucknow
V Ganga 5.
Madurai
VI Musi 6. Delhi
and Etawah
Codes-
I II
III IV V VI
a. 6 5
4 3 2 1
b. 1 2
3 4 5 6
c. 6 5
3 4 1 2
d. 2 3
1 5 4 6
Ans. (a)
.
20. Which of the following programs sponsored by central
government aims at enabling the
rural population to conserve water for drinking, irrigation,
fisheries and afforestation?
a. Arvary Pani Sansad
b. Haryali
c . Neeru-Meeru
d . Narmada bachao
Ans. (b)
21. Neeru-Meeru (water and You ) program is associated with
which of the following states ?
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Karnataka
c. Rajasthan d.
Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)
22. In which of the following states the share of area
irrigated through wells and tube wells is
very high ?
a. Rajasthan b.
Maharashtra
c . Gujarat d.
Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (c)
23. Which of the following rainwater harvesting structures
have not been constructed under
Arvary Pani
Sansad Program ?
a. Percolation tanks
b. Dug out ponds
c . Check dams d.
Wells
Ans. (d)
24. Which of the
following states made compulsory to install rainwater harvesting system
while constructing houses or buildings?
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Karnataka
c. Kerala d.
Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (a)
25. In Rajasthan rainwater harvesting structures locally
known as-----------------are
constructed.
a. Johada b.
Kund and Tanka
.
c. Kul or gul
d. Percolation pits
26.Which of the following is not the benefit of rain water
harvesting?
a. It increases water availability
b. It checks the declining ground water table
c. It improves the quality of ground water through dilution
of contaminants like fluoride and
nitrates
d. Helpful in production of hydro electricity
Ans. (d)
27. Which of the following is the aim of watershed
management program ?
a. Bringing about balance between natural resources on the
one hand and society on the
other
b. Grow more and more trees
c. Digging of well for rain water harvesting
d. Distribution of water equally among all the sections of
society
Ans. (a)
28. Which of the following method is not associated with
watershed management program ?
a. Percolation tanks
b. recharge of ground water
c. recharge wells
d. Tube wells
Ans. (d)
29. In India water is mainly used for which of the following
purposes ?
a. Rearing of livestock
b. Industrie
c. Irrigation d.
Hydroelectricity generation
Ans. (c)
30. Which of the following agents are not the main source of
pollution in rivers ?
a. Micro-organisms
b. Solid waste and garbage
c. Chemicals d.
Soil erosion
.
Ans. (d)
31. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly ?
a. Water Act
- 1974
b. Environment Protection Act -
1986
c. Water Cess Act
- 1977
d. The central pollution control board - 1997
Ans (d)
.
L-7 MINERALS AND ENERGY RESOURCES
1. India is endowed with a rich variety of mineral resources
due to its varied geological
structure, mainly associated to the -------------------part
of our country.
a. Himalayan b.
North-Eastern
c . Peninsular d.
North-Eastern
Ans. (c)
2. Which of the following geological structure of India is
devoid of minerals of economic
use?
a. Vast alluvial plain
b. Peninsular plateau
c . Chhota Nagpur plateau region d. North- Western
Ans. (a)
3. Which of the following is an example of ferrous minerals?
a. Copper b.
Manganese
c . Bauxite d.
Gold
Ans. (b)
4. Which of the following is not an example of ferrous
minerals?
a. Iron ore b.
Manganese
c . Cobalt d.
Bauxite
Ans. (d)
5. Which of the following minerals is associated with the
organic origin?
a. Fossil fuels b.
Mica
c . Lime stone d.
Graphite
Ans. (a)
6. What percent of coal reserves occur in the valleys of
Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi and
Godavari?
a. 67 b. 97 c. 87
d. 95
7. Which of the following regions is not associated with the
availability of petroleum?
a. Assam b.
Gujarat
c . Mumbai High
d. Madhya Pradesh
.
Ans. (d)
8. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
MINERALS BELT
SUB-REGION
a. The north eastern plateau region - Chhota Nagpur
b. The south-western plateau region - Karnataka
c. The South-Western region
- Maharashtra
d. The north-western region
- Rajasthan (Aravalli)
Ans-(c)
9. The south-west plateau region is rich in which of the
following minerals ?
a. Ferrous metals and bauxite b. Mica and Graphite
c . Anthracite coal
d. Silver
Ans. (a)
10. Neyveli coal reserves are found in which of the
following region?
a. North-east plateau region
b. South-west plateau region
c. North-western region
d. North-eastern states
Ans. (b)
11. Availability of
which of the following minerals are associated with Kerala?
a. Monazite and thorium
b. Gypsum and thorium
c. Bauxite clay and Gypsum
d. Granite and gypsum
Ans. (a)
12. Match the column
I with column II and choose the correct answer with the help of the
given codes.
COLUMN I (STATES)
COLUMN II (MOST AVAILABLE MINERAL)
I. Rajasthan - Lignite coal
II. Kerala - Petroleum reserves
III. Gujarat - Thorium
IV. Tamil Nadu - Sand
stone
.
Codes-
I II
III IV
a. 1 2
3 4
b. 2 1
3 4
c. 4 3
1 2
d. 4 3
2 1
Ans. (d)
13. Which of the
following minerals are provided as raw materials for the cement industry ?
a. Gypsum and lead
b. Cobalt and limestone
c . Dolomite and limestone
d. Zinc and bronze
Ans. (c)
14. Which of the
following fact is not true regarding the availability of iron ore in India ?
a. India has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia
b. Most of reserves of iron ore are found in West Bengal
c. It has great demand in international market due to its
superior quality
d. The iron ore mines occur in close proximity to the coal
fields in the north-eastern
plateau region of the country which adds to their advantage
Ans.
(b)
15. Which of the
following mines are not associated with Odisha ?
a. Badampahar b.
Rajahra
c . Sulaipet d.
Gurumahisani
Ans. (b)
16. Match the column
I with column II and choose the correct answer with the help of given
Codes.
COLUMN I (STATES)
COLUMN II (NAME OF MINE)
I. Odisha 1.
Bailadila
II. Jharkhand 2.
Chandrapur
III. Karnataka 3.
Karimnagar
IV. Maharashtra 4.
Mayurbhanj
V. Tamil Nadu 5.
Kudremukh
VI. Telangana 6.
Salem
.
Codes-
I II
III IV V VI
a. 4 1 5
2 6 3
b. 1 2 3
4 5 6
c. 6 5 4
3 2 1
d. 2 1 4
3 5 6
Ans. (a)
17. What is the use
of manganese among the following?
a. Production of energy
b. Smelting of iron
c. Manufacturing of aluminum
d. Production of thermal power
18. Which of the
following states are the leading producer of manganese and bauxite?
a. Tamil Nadu b.
Jharkhand
c . Odisha d.
West Bengal
Ans. (c)
19. Consider the
following statements and choose the correct answers with the help of given
options.
1. Mineral fuels are essential for generation of power
2. Power is required for agriculture, industry, transport
and other sectors of economy.
Options-
a. Both statements 1
and 2 are correct and related to each other as well
b. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but not related to
each other
c. Only statement 2 is correct
d. Only statement 1 is correct
Ans. (a)
20. Which of the
following is not an example of conventional source of energy ?
a. Coal b.
Petroleum
c . Geo thermal energy
d. Natural gas
Ans. (c)
.
21. The most
important Gondwana coal fields of India are located in-----------------------.
a. Cauvery Valley
b. Damodar Valley
c . Mahanadi Valley
d. Narmada Valley
Ans. (b)
22. Which of the
following method is still used by Singareni collieries, the country’s premier
coal production company to detect the presence of deadly
carbon monoxide in
underground mines?
a. Canaries b.
Squadron
c. Instruments equipped with high technology d. Cat
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the
following is the oldest oil producing region of India?
a. Ankaleshwar
b. Digboi
c. Mumbai High
d. Naharkatiya
Ans. (b)
24. Which of the
following is not an eco-friendly source of energy?
a. Solar energy b.
Wind energy
c. Petroleum d.
Geo-thermal energy
Ans. (c)
25. Consider the
following statements, find cause and effect relationship between these two
and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. Solar thermal technology has some relative advantages
over all other non-renewable
energy sources.
2. It is cost competitive, environment friendly and easy to
construct.
Option-
a. Only statement 2 is correct
b. Only statement 1 is correct
c. Both statements are correct and statement 2 correctly
explains statement 1.
d. Both statements are correct but not related to each other
Ans. (c)
26. Consider the
following statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
.
1. The Ministry of Non-conventional Sources of Energy is
developing wind energy in
India to lessen the burden of import bill.
2. The country’s potential of wind power generation exceeds
50,000 megawatts.
Options-
a. Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct and related with
each other
b. Both the statements are incorrect
c. Only statement 2 is correct
d. Only statement 1 is correct
Ans. (a)
27. In which of the
following states, favorable conditions for wind energy do not exist?
a. Rajasthan b.
Gujarat
c. Maharashtra d.
Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (d)
28. The project that
is helpful to convert municipal waste into energy is located in-------------
a. New Delhi (Okhla)
b. Aligarh
c. Gurgaon d.
Chandigarh
Ans. (a)
29. Geo-thermal energy producing plant is located in which
of the following states of India?
a. Jammu and Kashmir
b. Himachal Pradesh
c . Manipur d.
Rajasthan
Ans. (b)
30. Match the column
I with column II and choose the correct answer with the help of given
Codes.
COLUMN I (STATES)
COLUMN II (NUCLEAR ENERGY PLANTS)
I. Maharashtra 1.
Kalpakkam
II. Rajasthan 2.
Naroura
III. Tamil Nadu 3.
Tarapore
IV. Uttar Pradesh 4.
Kaiga
V. Karnataka 5.
Kakrapara
VI. Gujarat 6.
Rawatbhata
.
Codes-
I II
III IV V VI
a. 3 6 1
2 4 5
b. 1 2 3
4 5 6
c. 6 5 4
3 2 1
d. 1 4 3
2 5 6
Ans. (a)
31. Which of the
following regions is not associated with the availability of tertiary coal?
a. Assam b.
Arunachal Pradesh
c . Jharkhand d.
Meghalaya
Ans. (c)
32. Match the column
I with column II and choose the correct answers with the help of given
Codes.
COLUMN I (STATES)
COLUMN II (COAL MINES)
I. Jharkhand 1.
Chanda- Vardha
II. Madhya Pradesh
2. Singrauli
III. Odisha 3.
Korba
IV. Chhattisgarh 4.
Talcher
V. Maharashtra 5.
Giridih
Codes
I II
III IV V
a. 1 2
3 4 5
b. 5 2
4 3 1
c. 5 4
3 2 1
d. 5 4
2 3 1
Ans. (b)
33. Which of the
following is the largest coal field in India ?
a. Jharia b.
Raniganj
.
c . Bokaro d.
Singrauli
Ans. (a)
34. Patlands of
Lohardaga district in Jharkhand is rich in which of the following minerals?
a. Mica b. Bauxite
c . Copper d.
Manganese
Ans. (b)
35. Consider the
following statements and choose the correct answer from the given options?
I. The vast alluvial plain tract of north India is devoid of
minerals of economic use.
II. The mineral resources provide the country with the
necessary base for industrial
Development.
Options-
a. Only statement I is correct
b. Only statement II is correct
c. Both the statement I and II are correct and also related
with present context
d. Both the statement
are incorrect
Ans. (c)
36. Minerals of which
of the following belts are associated with the rocks of Dharwar
system?
a. North-eastern plateau region
b. South-western plateau region
c. North-western region
d. North-eastern hilly region
Ans. (c)
37. In India,
systematic surveying, prospecting, and exploration for minerals is not
undertaken
by which of the following agency ?
a. Geological Survey of India (GSI)
b. Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC)
c. National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC)
d. National Highway Authority of India (NHAI)
Ans. (d)
.
L-8 MANUFACTURING
INDUSTRIES
1. Why iron and steel industries are not found in Uttar
Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan
and Gujarat ?
a. Non availability of raw materials
b. Unfavourable policy of government
c. Lack of suitable location
d. Non availability of market for finished products
Ans. (a)
2. Which of the following locations are economical for the
establishment of manufacturing
industries ?
a. Where all the means of transport are available
b. Where cost of production and delivery cost of
manufactured goods to consumers are the
Least.
c. Where all the raw material is available at single place
d. Where cheap labour is available
Ans. (b)
3. Consider the following statements, establish cause-effect
relationship between these two
and choose the correct answers from the given options.
I. Sugar factories are located within the cane producing
regions.
II. Weight loosing nature of sugarcane and decreasing
sucrose content due to haulage
after harvesting are the main causes.
a. Both statements are correct but not related with each
other
b. Both statements are correct and statement II correctly
explains statement I.
c. Only statement 2 is correct
d. Both statements are incorrect
Ans. (b)
4. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
answer with the help of given
options.
I. Both coking coal and iron ore are weight loosing raw
material in iron and steel
industry.
II. The best location for the iron and steel plants is near
the source of raw materials.
a. Only option I is correct
b. Only option II is correct
c. Both options are correct and option 2 correctly explains
option I.
d. Both options are correct but option II does not explain
option I.
Ans. (c)
.
5. Which of the following is the power intensive industry
that require huge quantum of
electricity ?
a. Synthetic nitrogen manufacturing industries
b. Cotton textile industry
c. Watch making and other electronics goods producing
industries
d. Oil refineries
Ans. (a)
6. Which of the following is not an example of market
oriented industries ?
a. Machines and tools
b. Oil refineries
c . Cotton textile industy d.Coal mine
Ans. (d)
7. Which of the following factors is chiefly responsible for
the concentration of industries in
and around Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata and Delhi ?
a. Proper development of these cities during British period.
b. They initially became the nodal points having transport
links
c. Proper maintenance by present governments
d. Foreign aid
Ans. (b)
8. Which of the following reason was behind the
establishment of iron and steel industry in
Bhilai and Rourkela ?
a. To develop backward tribal areas of the country
b. Integrated development of all the regions of country
c. providing
employment to all
d. To reduce burden over agriculture
Ans. (a)
9. Consider the following points:
I. Kolkata is the nearest port to provide export facility to
this steel plant.
II. The river Subarnarekha and Kharkai provide water to the
plant.
III. Lies very close to the Mumbai-Kolkata railway line.
On the basis of above mentioned points, identify the steel
plants from the given options.
a. Indian iron and steel company
b. Tata iron and steel company
c. Visvesvaraiya iron and steel works Ltd.
d. Rourkela iron and steel works
.
Ans. (b)
10. Which of the
following is not matched correctly ?
IRON STEEL PLANTS
COLLABORATOR COUNTRY
a. Rourkela steel plant
- Germany
b. Bhilai steel plant
- Russia
c. Durgapur steel plant
- United Kingdom
d. Bokaro steel plant
- France
Ans. (d)
11. The Indian Iron
and Steel Company (IISCO) set up its factory at which of the following
places ?
a. Durgapur and Kulti
b. Asansol and Burnpur
c . Hirapur and Kulti
d. Hirapur and Asansol
Ans. (c)
12. Which of the
following iron and steel plant is located on the Kolkata- Asansol Railway
line ?
a. Indian Iron and Steel Company
b. Tata Iron and Steel Company
c . Visvesvaraiya Iron and Steel Works Ltd.
d . Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant
Ans. (a)
13. Consider the
following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given
options
I. The development of the iron and steel industry opened the
doors to rapid
industrial
development in India.
II. Almost all sectors of the Indian industry depend heavily
on the iron and steel
industry for their basic infrastructure.
a. Only statement I
is true
b. Only statement II
is true
c. Both statement I
and II are correct
d. Both statement
are incorrect
Ans. (c)
14. Which of the
following is not the raw material used in the manufacturing of iron and
.
Steel?
a. Limestone b.
Manganese
c. Aluminum d.
Dolomite
Ans. (c)
15. Match the List I
with List II and choose the correct answer with the help of given options
LIST I (STEEL PLANT)
LIST II (FEATURES)
I. Rourkel Steel Plant
1. Located on the Kolkata-Delhi railway line
II. Vizag Steel Plant
2. Set up on the principle of transportation
cost minimization.
III. Bokaro Steel Plant
3. Located on the basis of proximity of raw
Material.
IV. Durgapur Steel Plant
4. First port based plant.
Codes-
I II
III IV
a. 3 4
2 1
b. 1 2
3 4
c. 1 4
3 2
d. 2 3
1 4
Ans. (a)
16. Which of the
following factors is not responsible for the development of cotton textile
Industry in India?
a. Large quantity of cotton was grown in India.
b. India is a tropical country and cotton is the most
comfortable fabric for a hot and
humid
Climate.
c. Abundant skilled labour required for this industry was
available.
d. Foreign direct investment
Ans. (d)
17. The first modern
cotton mill was established in Mumbai in-------------------.
a. 1854 b. 1954
c . 1856 d. 1956
.
Ans. (a)
18. Consider the
following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given
codes.
1. This industry suffered a major recession after partition.
2. This was due to the fact that the most of the good
quality cotton growing area had
gone to West Pakistan.
a. Both statements are correct but not related with each
other.
b. Both statements are correct and statement 2 correctly
explains statement 1.
c. Only statement 1 is correct.
d. Only statement 2 is correct.
Ans. (b)
19. Cotton textile
industry faced a major setback during colonial period. Which of the
following factors was not responsible for it ?
a. British did not encourage the development of the
indigenous cotton textile industry.
b. They exported raw cotton to their mills in Manchester and
Liverpool.
c. The finished products from Britain to be sold in India.
d. Untrained labour of India.
Ans. (d)
20. Which of the
following factors was not responsible for the establishment of cotton
textile
Industry in Mumbai in 1854 ?
a. It was very close to the cotton producing areas of
Gujarat and Maharashtra.
b. Availability of cheap and abundant labour locally.
c. Mumbai even than
was the financial centre and the capital was available there.
d. Liberal policy of Britishers.
Ans. (d)
21. Match the list I
with list II and choose the correct answer with the help of given codes;
LIST I (COTTON TEXTILE CENTRE) LIST II (FACTOR OF LOCATION)
I. Kanpur 1. Low labour costs
II. Kolkata 2.
Abundant availability of hydel power
III. Tamil Nadu 3.
Port facility
IV. Ujjain 4.
Based on local investment
.
Codes-
I II
III IV
a. 4 3
2 1
b. 1 2
3 4
c. 3 2
4 1
d. 1 4
3 2
Ans. (a)
22. Which of the
following states has the largest number of mills and most of them produce
yarn rather than cloth ?
a. Karnataka b.
Uttar Pradesh
c . Tamil Nadu d.
Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (c)
23. Which of the
following is an example of seasonal industry?
a. Cotton textile industry
b. Sugar industry
c . Iron and steel industry d. Food Processing industry
Ans. (b)
24. Which of the
following is not matched correctly?
STATES FEATURES
a. Uttar Pradesh
- Kanpur is the largest cotton
textile center
b. Maharashtra - Leading sugar producing state
c. Tamil Nadu - State having largest numbers of cotton mills
d. Punjab - Leading producer of sugarcane
Ans. (d)
25.
Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram industrial region is mainly depend upon which
of the
following factors?
a. Plantation agriculture and hydroelectricity
b. Heavy industries
c. Food processing industries
d. Availability of major minerals
.
Ans. (a)
26. Which of the
following states was mainly benefitted by both domestic investment and
Foreign direct investment?
a. Gujarat b.
Andhra Pradesh
c. Maharashtra d.
Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)
27. Which of the
following are not the indices used to identify the clustering of industries?
a. The number of industrial units
b. Quantum of power used for industrial purposes
c. The number of industrial workers and total industrial
output
d. Total land
acquired
Ans. (d)
28. The development
of Hugli industrial region is associated with which of the following
event?
a. Opening of river port on Hugli
b. Availability of cheap labor from Odisha
c. Exploration of coal reserves from Damodar valley
d. Discovery of iron ore from Chhota Nagpur plateau region
Ans. (a)
29. In which of the
following region, the largest oil refinery is located ?
a. Ankleshwar b.
Jamnagar
c. Koyali d.
Guwahati
Ans. (b)
30. Electronics,
light engineering and electrical goods industries are associated with which
of the following industrial regions?
a. Mumbai-Pune industrial region
b. Gurgaon-Delhi Meerut region
c. Vishakhapatnam-Guntur industrial region
d. Gujarat industrial region
Ans. (b)
.
L-9 PLANNING AND SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT IN INDIAN
CONTEXT
1. Economic development of a region depends upon its
resource base, apart from it which
Which of the following factors is important for the
development ?
a. Hard working and skilled labour
b. Technology and investment
c. Motivated citizens
d. Will power of citizens
Ans. (b)
2. Which of the following programmes was initiated during
the Fifth Five Year Plan ?
a. Drought Prone Area Programme
b. Infrastructural Development Programme in Tribal and
Backward Region
c. Hill Area Development Programme
d. Marginal Farmers Development Programme
Ans. (c)
3. According to The National Committee on the Development of
Backward Area in 1981,
which of the following areas be treated as backward hill
areas?
a. All the areas in the country having height above 600
metres.
b. Areas do not covered under tribal sub-plan.
c. Areas having the height of 900 metres and where tribal
sub-plan is already
implemented.
d. Only (a) and (b).
Ans. (d)
4. Which of the following programme is not associated with
the development programme of
hilly regions ?
a. Afforestation and Pasture lands development
b. Horticulture
c. Plantation agriculture
d. Animal husbandry and poultry
5. Which of the following problems have been emerged due to
increasing population in
Drought prone areas ?
a. Forcing the society to utilise the marginal lands for
agriculture
b. Ecological degradation
c. Soil erosion
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
.
6. Which of the following is not a drought prone area ?
a. Western Madhya Pradesh
b. Western Ghats
c . Telangana Plateau
d. Gujarat
Ans. (b)
7. Which of the following strategies have been adopted to
protect the drought prone areas of
Punjab, Haryana and Northern Rajasthan ?
a. Expansion of irrigation
b. Rain water harvesting technique
c. Water shed development program
d. Arrangement of water tankers on rental basis
Ans. (a)
8. Which of the following commission is now responsible to
formulate the plans on Central,
state and state level ?
a. Planning commission
b. Niti Aayog
b. Election commission
d. Public service commission
Ans. (b)
9. Niti Aayog is set up with which of the following
objective ?
a. To provide strategic and technical advice to the Central
and State government.
b. To involve the states in economic policy making in India.
c. For the equitable distribution of resources
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
10. Which of the
following is not an example of sectoral planning ?
a. Agriculture
b. Hill Area Development
c . Irrigation
d. Social infrastructure
11. Consider the
following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given
options.
I. Sometimes regions having rich resource base also remain
backward.
II. For economic development, technology and investment is
also needed along with
resources.
a. Only statement I is true.
b. Only statement II is true.
c. Both statement are correct. Statement II correctly
explains I.
d. Both are true but not related with each other.
.
Ans. (c)
12. In which year,
Bharmaur region was considered as notified tribal area ?
a. 1977 b. 1976
c. 1975 d. 1974
Ans. (c)
13. Which of the
following tribal group is associated with Bharmaur region ?
a. Gurjar b.
Gaddi
c . Bakarwal d.
Bhils
Ans. (b)
14. The economy of
Bharmaur region is largely depend upon which of the following
activities?
a. Agriculture b.
Sheep and goat rearing
c . Weaving of shawls
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
15. Which of the
following rivers flows through Bharmaur region ?
a. Ravi b. Beas
c . Chenab d.
Jhelum
Ans. (a)
16. Under which Five
Years Plan, Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated
Tribal Development Projects (ITDP)?
a. Fourth five Year Plan
b. Fifth five Year Plan
c . Sixth five
Year Plan d. seventh five Year
Plan
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following areas are the main beneficiaries
of infrastructural development
under Integrated Tribal Development Program?
a. Tundah and Kugti
b. Kugti and Khani
c . Holi and Khani
d. Holi and Kugti
Ans. (c)
.
18. Which of the
following not the social benefit is of derived from ITDP?
a. Tremendous increase in literacy rate
b. Improvement in social sex ratio
c. Decline in child marriage
d. Abolition of dowry system
Ans. (d)
Q.19. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct answer with the help of given
options;
I. Now the importance of pastoralism is declining in the
economy of Bharmaur region.
II. At present only about one-tenth of the total household
practice Transhumance in
Bharmaur region.
a. Only statement I is true
b. Both statements are true and statement II correctly
explains statement I.
c. Both statement are true but not related to each other.
d. Both statements are irrelevant.
Ans. (c)
Q.20 which of the following is not matched correctly ?
LIST I LIST II
a. The Population Bomb
- Ehrlich
b. The Limit to Growth
- Meadows
c. Growth and Equality
- Mahatma Gandhi
d. Our Common Future
- Gro herlam Brundtland
Ans. (c)
Q.21 Which of the following does not signify ‘Sustainable
Development”correctly ?
a. Judicious use of resources
b. Meet the needs of present without compromising the future
needs.
c. Protection of environment along with development
d. Resources should only utilise for future generations.
Ans. (d)
Q. 22. Which of the following twin environmental problems
have emerged in Indira Gandhi
.
Canal Command area ?
a. Water logging and soil salinity
b. Soil alkalinity and soil erosion
c. Soil salinity and soil erosion
d. Water logging and soil erosion
Ans. (a)
Q.23. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct
answer with the help of given
codes.
LIST I LIST II
I. Punjab 1. Indira
Gandhi Canal Command Area
II. Himachal Pradesh
2. Nilgiri
III. Rajasthan 3.
Bharmaur
IV. Tamil Nadu 4.
Harike Dam
Codes- I
II III IV
a. 1 2
3 4
b. 2 1
3 4
c. 4 3
1 2
d. 4 2
3 1
Ans. (c)
Q.24. Consider the
following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given
options;
I.,The traditional crops like, gram, bajra and jowar sown in
Indira Gandhi Canal command
area, have been replaced by wheat, groundnut, cotton and
rice.
II. Spread of canal irrigation has led to increase in
cultivated area and intensity of cropping.
a. Only statement I is true
b. Only statement II is true
c . Both statements are true d. Both statements are incorrect
Ans. (c)
Q.25. Which of the following district is not included in
Indira Gandhi Canal Comman area of
stage -II?
.
a. Bikaner b.
Jodhpur
c . Jaisalmer d.
Ganganagar
Ans. (d)
Q.26. Which of the following district is not included in
Indira Gandhi Canal Comman area of
stage -I ?
a. Nagaur b.
Hanumangarh
c . Bikaner d.
Ganganagar
Ans. (a)
.
L-10 TRANSPORT AND COMMUNICATION
Q.1. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct answer with the help of given
options;
I. In recent years- ropeways, cableways and pipelines were
developed as a means of
transport.
II. They were developed to cater the demands of transporting
specific goods under
special
circumstances.
a. Only I is
correct
b. Only II is
correct
c . Both statements
are correct and statement II is correctly explains statement I
d . Both
statements are true but not related with each other.
Q.2. By what name was the Sher Shah Suri Highway named in
the British period ?
a. Grand Trunk Road
b. National Highway
c. G. T. Karnal Road
d. Mathura Road
Ans. (a)
Q.3. Which of the following transport is relatively suitable
for shorter distance travel ?
a. Rail transport
b. Cable ways
c. Road transport
d. Air transport
Ans. (c)
Q. 4. Which of the following plan was introduced to improve
the conditions of roads in India ?
a. Five Year Road Plan
b. Nagpur Plan
c. Ten Years Road Plan
d. Twenty Years Road Plan
Ans. (d)
Q.5. Which of the following is an apex body to improve the
quality of the roads designated as
National Highways ?
a. National Highway Authority of India
.
b. Central Public Works Department
c. Public Works Department
d. Border Road Organisation
Ans. (a)
Q.6 Which of the following factors affect the density of
rural roads ?
a. Will power of the government b. The nature of the terrain
c. Lack of capital
d. Lack of maintenance
Ans. (b)
Q.7 Which of the following is not matched correctly ?
LIST I LIST
II
a. State Highways -
Join the state capitals with district headquarters
and other important towns.
b. District Roads
- connecting links between
District Headquarters
and the other important nodes in the district.
c. Border Roads
- Connect the state capitals with
each other
d. Rural Roads - Vital for providing links in the rural areas.
Ans. (c)
Q.8 Consider the following and match the List I with List II
and choose the correct answer
with the help of given codes .
List I List II
Types of roads %
of total length
I. National Highways
1. 14 %
II. State Highways
2. 80 %
III. District Roads
3. 1.67%
IV. Rural Roads 4.
4 %
Codes-
I II
III IV
a. 3
4 1 2
.
b. 1
2 3 4
c. 4
3 2 1
d. 2
4 3 1
Ans. (a)
Q. 9 Which of the following is not under the jurisdiction of
Border Roads Organisation ?
a. Rapid and coordinated improvement of strategically
important roads along the northern and
north-eastern boundary.
b. Constructed roads in high altitude mountainous terrain
joining Chandigarh with Manali.
c. It also undertakes snow clearance in high altitude areas.
d. It connects capitals of different neighbouring countries.
Ans. (d)
10.Which of the following factors are the main determinants
of road density ?
a. Nature of terrain
b. Level of economic development
c. Availability of capital
d. Only (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
11.Consider the following and match List I with List II and
choose the correct answer with the
help of given codes.
LIST I ( Railway Zone)
LIST II (Headquarters)
i. Central 1. New
Delhi
ii. Eastern 2.
Jabalpur
iii. South Western
3. Kolkata
iv. Northern 4.
Hubli
v. West Central 5.
Mumbai (CST)
Codes;
I II
III IV V
a. 1 2
3 4 5
b. 5 3
4 1 2
.
c. 5 4
2 1 3
d. 3 2
5 4 1
Ans. (b)
12. Consider the
following statements and choose the correct options with the help of given
options.
I. Construction of roads is easy and cheaper in the plain
areas .
II. Nature of terrain and the level of economic development
are the main
determinants
of density of roads.
a.Both the statements are correct.
b. Both the statements are true ,statement II correctly
explains statement I.
c. both the statements are true but not related with each
other.
d. Both statements are incorrect.
Ans. (b)
13. Which of the
following is the most cheapest means of transport and is most suitable for
for carrying heavy and bulky material ?
a. Road Transport
b. Rail Transport
c . Water Transport
d. Air Transport
Ans. (c)
14. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly ?
LIST I (National Waterways) LISTII (Extension)
a. National Waterways No. 1
- Allahabad- Haldia
b. National Waterways No. 2
- Sadiya- Dhubri
c. National Waterways No. 3
- Kottapuram- Kollam
d. National Waterways No. 4
- Matai river- Brahmani river
Ans. (d)
15. Air transport in India made a beginning in 1911 with
which of the following event?
a. When airmail operation commenced over a little distance
of 10 km between Allahabad and
Naini.
.
b. When the then Prime minister of India started the air
services between Allahabad and
Naini.
c. Clustering of Indian Navy on the Western coast of India.
d. Movement of foreign delegates in India in 1911.
Ans. (a)
16. Which of the following modes of transport is the most
convenient and efficient mode of
transportingliquids, gases and even solids over long distances ?
a. Pipelines b.
Rail Transport
c. Road Transport
d. Water Transport
Ans. (a)
17. Which of the following acquisition is engaged in the
exploration, production and
Transportation
of crude oil and natural gas ?
a. Natural Gas Limited
b. Oil India Limited
c . Petroleum Ministry
d. Mineral Ministry
Ans. (b)
18. Which of the following is the first cross country
pipeline of Asia?
a. From Ankaleshwar to Koyali
b. From Mumbai High to Koyali
c. From Naharkatiya oilfield in Assam to Barauni refinery in
Bihar.
d. Hazira-Vijaypur-Jagdishpur
Ans. (c)
19. Which of the following air services is operating in
hilly areas and is widely used by
tourists in
North-eastern sector ?
a. Pawanhans Helicopter service
b. Air India air craft service
c. Indian Airlines
d. Himalayan Aviation Limited.
.
Ans. (a)
20. Which of the following stands for ‘Open Sky Policy’ ?
a. Air craft of any country can use any air route.
b. Foreign airlines or association of exporters can bring
any freighters to the country.
c. Air routes present in India can only be utilised by
foreigners after taking the prior
permission of Indian Government.
d. Setting up of rules for smooth running of air services.
Ans. (b)
21. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
answers with the help of given
options.
I. Development in the field of science and technology has
significantly contributed in
bringing about revolution in the field of communication.
II. Invention of post office, telegraph, printing press,
telephone, satellite etc. has made
the communication much faster and easier.
a. Only I is correct
b. Only II is correct
c. Both the statements are true ,statement II correctly
explains I.
d. Both are correct but not related to each other.
Ans. (c)
22. Which of the following communication is most effective
and advanced one used in urban
areas ?
a. Letters b.
Internet
c. Telephones d.
Mobile
Ans. (b)
23. Match the List I with List II and choose the correct
answers with the help of given codes.
List I (Year)
List II ( Development of Radio comm.)
1. 1923 1. Indian Broadcasting System
2. 1930 2. All India Radio
3. 1936 3. Radio Club of Bombay
4. 1957 4. Change to
Akashwani
Codes-
I II
III IV
a. 3 1
2 4
b. 1 2
3 4
c. 2 3
1 4
d. 4 3
2 1
Ans. (a)
24. Which of the following is not included in the uses of
satellite communication ?
a. Used for weather forecast
b. Monitoring of natural calamities
c. Surveillance of border areas
d. For the grouping of economic use
Ans. (d)
25. Which of the following centres provides facilities for
acquisition and processing of data
transmits by satellites ?
a. National Remote Sensing Centre located at Bhuvaneshwar.
b.National Remote Sensing Centre located at Bangalore
c. National Remote Sensing Centre located at Hyderabad
d. National Remote Sensing Centre located at Jaipur
Ans. (c)
L-11 INTERNATIONAL TRADE
1. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
answer with the help of given
options
I. The international trade of India has rose many fold as
compare to 1950-51 to 2009
10.
II. Reasons for this sharp rise is the momentum picked up by
the manufacturing sectors,
the liberal policies of the government and the
diversification of markets.
a. Only statement I is true
b. Only statement II is true
c. Both statements are true and statement II correctly
explains statement I
d. Both statements are wrong
Ans. (c)
2. What is the percentage of India’s contribution in the
total volume of world trade ?
a. 1 % b.2 % c.3%
d.4 %
Ans. (a)
3. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
answer with the help of given
options;
I. The balance of payment was adverse as imports were more
than exports in spite
of all the efforts of import substitution.
II. Steep rise in the import of petroleum products
responsible for the increase in
import value.
Options;
a. Only statement I is true
b. Only statement II is true
c. Both statements are true and statement II correctly
explains statement II.
d. Both statements are incorrect
Ans. (c)
4. Which of the following commodities is recorded decline in
export ?
a. Horticulture products
b. Marine products
c .Tea and coffee
d. Sugar
Ans. (c)
5. Which of the following commodities shows rise in its
export ?
a. Pulses b.
Horticulture products
c . Spices d.
Coffee
Ans. (b)
6. Which of the following point is not true about the
international trade of India ?
.
a. Machine and equipment, special steel, edible oil and
chemicals largely make the steel
basket.
b. There is steep rise in the export of petroleum.
c. Gems and jewels have major shares in the international
trade of India
d. Amongst the agricultural products, there is decline in
the export of traditional items,
such as coffee, cashew etc.
Ans. ( b)
7. India does not import which of the following commodities
?
a. Pearls and semi precious stones
b. Electronic goods
c. Scrap metals and non-ferrous metals
d. Food grains
Ans. (d)
8. Which of the following measures is not related with
India’s aim to double its share in the
international trade ?
a. Increase in import taxes
b. Import liberalisation
c. De-licensing
d. Change from process to product patents Ans.
(a)
9. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly ?
a. Hugli river
- Diamond Harbour
b. Bangladesh - Trade by roadways
c. Africa - Major trading partner of India
d. Asia and ASEAN
- Largest import area of
India
Ans. (c)
10. For which of the
following purpose did the British build and use ports ?
a.As suction points of the resources from their hinterland
b. With the aim to increase trade in India
c. For the development of market in India
d. For the integrated development of India
Ans. (a)
11. Kandla port was developed to compensate the loss of
which of the following port ?
a. Karachi b. Chittagong
c .Surat d.
Kochhi
Ans. (a)
15. Consider the
following statements and match the list I with list II and choose the correct
answer with the help of given options.
.
PORTS LOCATION
I. Kandla Port
- 1. Land locked port
II. Mumbai Port
- 2. Downstream
III. New Mangalore Port
- 3. At the head of the Gulf of
Kutchh
IV. Vishakhapattnam Port
- 4. Karnataka
V. Haldia Port
- 5. Natural port
Codes;
I II
III IV V
a. 3 5
4 1 2
b. 3 5
2 1 4
c. 4 3
5 2 1
d. 1 2
3 4 5
Ans. (a)
13. ----------------------------port was developed in Nhava
Sheva as satellite port to relieve
the pressure at the
Mumbai Port.
a. Kandla b. New
Mangalore
c. Marmagao d.
Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans. (d)
14. -------------------------is a natural harbour and the
biggest port of the country.
a. Mumbai b.
Marmagao
c. Kandla d.
Vishakhapatnam
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following port is located at the entrance
of Zuari estuary?
a. Chennai b.
Kolkata
c. Marmagao d.
Paradweep
Ans. (c)
16.Consider the following and match the list I with list II
and choose the correct answer
with the help of given options.
.
PORT STATES
I. Paradweep - 1. Kerala
II. Tuticorin
- 2. Goa
III. Kochchi - 3. West Bengal
IV. Haldia - 4. Odisha
V. Marmagao - 5. Tamil Nadu
Codes;
I II
III IV V
a. 1 2
3 4 5
b. 4 5
1 3 2
c. 4 1
5 3 2
d. 4 5
3 1 2
Ans. (b)
17. Which of the following port is developed in the form of
satellite port ?
a. Paradweep b.
Kochchi
c. Kandla d.
Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans. (d)
18. Kolkata port is confronted with silt accumulation in the
--------------------river which
provides a link to the sea.
a. Hughly b.
Mahanadi
c. Gandak d. Ven
Ganga
Ans. (a)
19. -----------------------------port has the deepest
harbour specially suited to handle very large
vessels.
a. Vishakhapatnam
b. Paradweep
c. Haldia d.
Mumbai
Ans. (b)
20. Which of the
following states are covered under the hinterland of Paradweep port ?
a. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Odisha
.
b. West Bengal, Odisha, Chhattisgarh
c. Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh
d. Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Chhattisgarh Ans. (c)
21. Consider the
following and match the list I with list II and choose the correct answer
with the help of
given options.
LIST I (PORTS)
LIST II (HINTERLANDS)
I. Marmagao - 1.
Karnataka
II. Vishakhapattnam
- 2. Tamil Nadu and Puducherry
III. Chennai - 3.
Andhre Pradesh and Telangana
IV. New Mangalore -
4. Karnataka, Goa & Southern
Mahrashtra.
Codes :
I II
III IV
a. 4 3
2 1
b. 1 2
3 4
c. 4 3
1 2
d. 4 2
1 3
Ans. (a)
22. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
answer with the help of given
options;
I. Participation of air transport is reduced in
international trade as compared to oceanic
route.
II. It is very costly and unsuitable for carrying heavy and
bulky commodities.
Options;
a. Only statement I is true
b. Only statement II is true
c. Both statements are true and statement II correctly
explains statement II.
d. Both statements
are incorrect Ans. (c)
23. Why the import of food grains discontinued after 1970s?
.
a. Due to
the success of green revolution
b. Due to increase of import value of food grains
c. Due to record growth in milk production
d. Due to the restrictions imposed by the countries to which
India imports food grains.
Ans. (a)
24. Why international trade is beneficial to all the
countries of the world?
a. To maintain harmony among themselves
b. No country is independent in terms of all resources
c. To end war situations
d. To make alive the give and take process.
.
L-12 GEOGRAPHICAL PERSPECTIVE ON SELECTEDISSUESAND
PROBLEMS
1. Which of the following is the main source of human
created water pollution?
a. Industries b.
Domestic waste
c. Agriculture d.
Cultural activities
Ans. (a)
2. . Consider the following and match the list I with list
II and choose the correct answer
with the help of
given options.
LIST I (TYPES OF
POLLUTION) LIST II (POLLUTANTS)
I. Air pollution
- 1. Nuclear power plant
II. Water pollution
- 2. Advertisement media
III. Land pollution
- 3. Combustion of coal, petroleum
and diesel
IV. Noise pollution
- 4. Disposal of untreated industrial
waste
Codes:
I II
III IV
a. 3 1
4 2
b. 3 4
1 2
c. 3 1
2 4
d. 4 1
2 3
Ans. (c)
3. Which of the following is the most water polluting
industries ?
a. Food processing industry
b. Pulp and Paper industry
c. Electro plating industry d. Iron and steel industry
Ans. (b)
4. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
answer with the help of given
options;
I. Most of the industrial wastes are disposed off in running
water or lakes.
.
II. Poisonous elements reach the reservoirs, rivers and
other water bodies which destroy the bio
system of these waters.
Options;
a. Only statement I is true
b. Only statement II is true
c. Both statements are true and statement II correctly
explains the effects of
Statement I
d. Both statements are incorrect
Ans. (c)
5. Fertilisers induces an increase in
the-------------------content of surface waters.
a. Nitrate b.
Lead
c . Chloride d.
Radio active materials
Ans. (a)
6. Which of the
following pairs is not matched correctly /
TYPES OF POLLUTION
POLLUTANTS
a. Air Pollution
- Hydro carbons
b. Water Pollution
- Oil and Grease
c. Land Pollution
- Radio active substances
d. Noise Pollution
- Aldehydes asbestos
Ans. (d)
7. Which of the following is not a water borne disease ?
a. Diarrehoea b.
Viral fever
c . Intestinal worms
d. Hepatitis
Ans. (b)
8. Which of the following is the main source of air
pollution ?
a. Combustion of fossil fuels
b. Industrial wastes
c. Chemical fertilisers
d. Sounds of DJ
Ans. (a)
9. Which of the following diseases is not associated with
air pollution ?
a. Hepatitis b.
Respiratory disease
c . Nervous system
d. circulatory system
Ans. (a)
.
10. Which of the
following is not the cause of noise pollution ?
a. Mechanised construction
b. Combustion of coal, petroleum and diesel
c. Automobiles and aircraft
d. Loudspeakers
An(b)
11. Which of the
following air pollution borne factor proves very harmful to human health?
a. Acid rain b.
Smog
c . Concentration of ammonia d. burning of coal
Ans. (b)
12. Which of the
following is not an example of solid wastes ?
a. Sewage disposal
b. Polythene bags
c . Plastic containers
d. broken glassware
Ans. (a)
13 . Consider the
following statements and choose the correct answer with the help of given
options;
I. Environmental pollution by solid wastes has now got
significance.
II. Enormous growth in the quantity of wastes generated from
various sources is
responsible for it.
Options;
a.Only statement I is true
b. Only statement II is true
c. Both statements are true but not related with each
other.
d. Both statements are correct and statement II is the main
cause for statement I.
Ans. (d)
14.Consider the following and match the list I with list II
and choose the correct option
with the help of given codes.
LIST I (CAUSES)
LIST II (DISEASES)
I. Water Pollution
1. Problem of Blood pressure
II. Air :pollution
2. Typhoid
III. Solid wastes
3. Respiratory
IV. Noise Pollution
4. Diorrhea
.
Codes:
I II
III IV
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 1 4
3
Ans. (c)
15. Which of the following program has been launched by
Union Government for the
cleaning of river Ganga ?
a. Ganga Action Plan
b. Namami Gange
c. Ganga Namami Action Plan
d. Ganga Cleaning Mission Ans.(b)
16 Which of the following cities is not included in the
group of city where 90% of solid
waste is collected and disposed ?
a. Kolkata b.
Chennai
c . Bengaluru d.
Aligarh Ans.
(d)
17. Which of the following factors is not responsible for
the flow of population from the
rural areas to urban areas ?
a. Availability of adequate land in rural areas
b. High demand of labour in urban areas
c. Low job opportunities in rural areas
d. Unbalanced pattern of development between urban and rural
areas
Ans. (a)
18.Only one main road traverses the Dharavi slum, which is
miscalled-----------------.
a. Seventy foot road
b. Eighty foot road
c. Ninety foot road
d. Ninety one foot road
Ans. (c)
19. Dharavi is the largest slum
of--------------------------------.
a. Asia b.
Africa
.
c . Malaysia d.
india Ans. (a)
20. Which of the following factors is not responsible for
land degradation ?
a. Soil erosion b.
Salinity
c . Alkalinity d.
Afforestation Ans. (d)
21. Which of the following wasteland is belongs to human
generated activities ?
a. Barren rocky areas
b. Glacial areas
c. Degraded shifting cultivation areas
d. Desertic coastal sands Ans. (c)
22. For which of the following wasteland, natural factors
are responsible ?
a. Steep sloping land
b. Degraded plantaion area
c. Mining and industrial wasteland
d. Degraded forests
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following tribal ;population belongs to
Jhabua district ?
a. Gond b. Bheel
c , Santhal d.
Gaddi Ans. (b)
24. Which of the following factors is responsible for accute
poverty in Jhabua district ?
a. Degradation of forests
b. Degradtion of land
c. Government machnary
d. Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)
